Title: ASN 210 W6 EMERGENCY DISASTERS PREPAREDNESS
Course: 16SP-ASN-210-GH1A1-ADV NUR THROUGH LIFESPAN I

Q: On a hot humid day, an emergency department nurse is caring for a client who is confused and has these vital signs: temperature 104.1° F (40.1° C), pulse 132 beats/min, respirations 26 breaths/min, blood pressure 106/66 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse take?
- Encourage the client to drink cool water or sports drinks.
- Start an intravenous line and infuse 0.9% saline solution.
- Administer acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg orally.
- Encourage rest and re-assess in 15 minutes.
A: Start an intravenous line and infuse 0.9% saline solution.
If right: The client demonstrates signs of heat stroke. This is a medical emergency and priority care includes oxygen therapy, IV infusion with 0.9% saline solution, insertion of a urinary catheter, and aggressive interventions to cool the client, including external cooling and internal cooling methods. Oral hydration would not be appropriate for a client who has symptoms of heat stroke because oral fluids would not provide necessary rapid rehydration, and the confused client would be at risk for aspiration. Acetaminophen would not decrease this client’s temperature or improve the client’s symptoms. The client needs immediate medical treatment; therefore, rest and re-assessing in 15 minutes is inappropriate.
If wrong: The client demonstrates signs of heat stroke. This is a medical emergency and priority care includes oxygen therapy, IV infusion with 0.9% saline solution, insertion of a urinary catheter, and aggressive interventions to cool the client, including external cooling and internal cooling methods. Oral hydration would not be appropriate for a client who has symptoms of heat stroke because oral fluids would not provide necessary rapid rehydration, and the confused client would be at risk for aspiration. Acetaminophen would not decrease this client’s temperature or improve the client’s symptoms. The client needs immediate medical treatment; therefore, rest and re-assessing in 15 minutes is inappropriate.

Q: While at a public park, a nurse encounters a person immediately after a bee sting. The person’s lips are swollen, and wheezes are audible. Which action should the nurse take first?
- Elevate the site and notify the person’s next of kin.
- Remove the stinger with tweezers and encourage rest.
- Administer diphenhydramine (Benadryl) and apply ice.
- Administer an EpiPen from the first aid kit and call 911.
A: Administer an EpiPen from the first aid kit and call 911.
If right: The client’s swollen lips indicate that anaphylaxis may be developing, and this is a medical emergency. 911 should be called immediately, and the client transported to the emergency department as quickly as possible. If an EpiPen is available, it should be administered at the first sign of an anaphylactic reaction. The other answers do not provide adequate interventions to treat airway obstruction due to anaphylaxis.
If wrong: The client’s swollen lips indicate that anaphylaxis may be developing, and this is a medical emergency. 911 should be called immediately, and the client transported to the emergency department as quickly as possible. If an EpiPen is available, it should be administered at the first sign of an anaphylactic reaction. The other answers do not provide adequate interventions to treat airway obstruction due to anaphylaxis.

Q: A client presents to the emergency department after prolonged exposure to the cold. The client is difficult to arouse and speech is incoherent. Which action should the nurse take first?
- Reposition the client into a prone position.
- Administer warmed intravenous fluids to the client.
- Wrap the client’s extremities in warm blankets.
- Initiate extracorporeal rewarming via hemodialysis.
A: Administer warmed intravenous fluids to the client.
If right: Moderate hypothermia manifests with muscle weakness, increased loss of coordination, acute confusion, apathy, incoherence, stupor, and impaired clotting. Moderate hypothermia should be treated by core rewarming methods, which include administration of warm IV fluids, heated oxygen, and heated peritoneal, pleural, gastric, or bladder lavage, and by positioning the client in a supine position to prevent orthostatic changes. The client’s trunk should be warmed prior to the extremities to prevent peripheral vasodilation. Extracorporeal warming with cardiopulmonary bypass or hemodialysis is a treatment for severe hypothermia.
If wrong: Moderate hypothermia manifests with muscle weakness, increased loss of coordination, acute confusion, apathy, incoherence, stupor, and impaired clotting. Moderate hypothermia should be treated by core rewarming methods, which include administration of warm IV fluids, heated oxygen, and heated peritoneal, pleural, gastric, or bladder lavage, and by positioning the client in a supine position to prevent orthostatic changes. The client’s trunk should be warmed prior to the extremities to prevent peripheral vasodilation. Extracorporeal warming with cardiopulmonary bypass or hemodialysis is a treatment for severe hypothermia.

Q: An emergency department nurse cares for a middle-aged mountain climber who is confused and exhibits bizarre behaviors. After administering oxygen, which priority intervention should the nurse implement?
- Administer dexamethasone (Decadron).
- Complete a mini–mental state examination.
- Prepare the client for computed tomography of the brain.
- Request a psychiatric consult.
A: Administer dexamethasone (Decadron).
If right: The client is exhibiting signs of mountain sickness and high altitude cerebral edema (HACE). Dexamethasone (Decadron) reduces cerebral edema by acting as an anti-inflammatory in the central nervous system. The other interventions will not treat mountain sickness or HACE.
If wrong: The client is exhibiting signs of mountain sickness and high altitude cerebral edema (HACE). Dexamethasone (Decadron) reduces cerebral edema by acting as an anti-inflammatory in the central nervous system. The other interventions will not treat mountain sickness or HACE.

Q: An emergency department nurse assesses a client admitted after a lightning strike. Which assessment should the nurse complete first?
- Electrocardiogram (ECG)
- Wound inspection
- Creatinine kinase
- Computed tomography of head
A: Electrocardiogram (ECG)
If right: Clients who survive an immediate lightning strike can have serious myocardial injury, which can be manifested by ECG and myocardial perfusion abnormalities. The nurse should prioritize the ECG. Other assessments should be completed but are not the priority.
If wrong: Clients who survive an immediate lightning strike can have serious myocardial injury, which can be manifested by ECG and myocardial perfusion abnormalities. The nurse should prioritize the ECG. Other assessments should be completed but are not the priority.

Q: A nurse teaches a community health class about water safety. Which statement by a participant indicates that additional teaching is needed?
- “I can go swimming all by myself because I am a certified lifeguard.”
- “I cannot leave my toddler alone in the bathtub for even a minute.”
- “I will appoint one adult to supervise the pool at all times during a party.”
- “I will make sure that there is a phone near my pool in case of an emergency.”
A: “I can go swimming all by myself because I am a certified lifeguard.”
If right: People should never swim alone, regardless of lifeguard status. The other statements indicate good understanding of the teaching.
If wrong: People should never swim alone, regardless of lifeguard status. The other statements indicate good understanding of the teaching.

Q: A provider prescribes a rewarming bath for a client who presents with partial-thickness frostbite. Which action should the nurse take prior to starting this treatment?
- Administer intravenous morphine.
- Wrap the limb with a compression dressing.
- Massage the frostbitten areas.
- Assess the limb for compartment syndrome.
A: Administer intravenous morphine.
If right: Rapid rewarming in a water bath is recommended for all instances of partial-thickness and full-thickness frostbite. Clients experience severe pain during the rewarming process and nurses should administer intravenous analgesics.
If wrong: Rapid rewarming in a water bath is recommended for all instances of partial-thickness and full-thickness frostbite. Clients experience severe pain during the rewarming process and nurses should administer intravenous analgesics.

Q: A nurse assesses a client recently bitten by a coral snake. Which assessment should the nurse complete first?
- Unilateral peripheral swelling
- Clotting times
- Cardiopulmonary status
- Electrocardiogram rhythm
A: Cardiopulmonary status
If right: Manifestations of coral snake envenomation are the result of its neurotoxic properties. The physiologic effect is to block neurotransmission, which produces ascending paralysis, reduced perception of pain, and, ultimately, respiratory paralysis. The nurse should monitor for respiratory rate and depth. Severe swelling and clotting problems do not occur with coral snakes but do occur with pit viper snakes. Electrocardiogram rhythm is not affected by neurotoxins.
If wrong: Manifestations of coral snake envenomation are the result of its neurotoxic properties. The physiologic effect is to block neurotransmission, which produces ascending paralysis, reduced perception of pain, and, ultimately, respiratory paralysis. The nurse should monitor for respiratory rate and depth. Severe swelling and clotting problems do not occur with coral snakes but do occur with pit viper snakes. Electrocardiogram rhythm is not affected by neurotoxins.

Q: A nurse plans care for a client admitted with a snakebite to the right leg. With whom should the nurse collaborate?
- The facility’s neurologist
- The poison control center
- The physical therapy department
- A herpetologist (snake specialist)
A: The poison control center
If right: For the client with a snakebite, the nurse should contact the regional poison control center immediately for specific advice on antivenom administration and client management.
If wrong: For the client with a snakebite, the nurse should contact the regional poison control center immediately for specific advice on antivenom administration and client management.

Q: While on a camping trip, a nurse cares for an adult client who had a drowning incident in a lake and is experiencing agonal breathing with a palpable pulse. Which action should the nurse take first?
- Deliver rescue breaths.
- Wrap the client in dry blankets.
- Assess for signs of bleeding.
- Check for a carotid pulse.
A: Deliver rescue breaths.
If right: In this emergency situation, the nurse should immediately initiate airway clearance and ventilator support measures, including delivering rescue breaths.
If wrong: In this emergency situation, the nurse should immediately initiate airway clearance and ventilator support measures, including delivering rescue breaths.

Q: A nurse assesses a client admitted with a brown recluse spider bite. Which priority assessment should the nurse perform to identify complications of this bite?
- Ask the client about pruritus at the bite site.
- Inspect the bite site for a bluish purple vesicle.
- Assess the extremity for redness and swelling.
- Monitor the client’s temperature every 4 hours.
A: Monitor the client’s temperature every 4 hours.
If right: Fever and chills indicate systemic toxicity, which can lead to hemolytic reactions, kidney failure, pulmonary edema, cardiovascular collapse, and death. Assessing for a fever should be the nurse’s priority. All other symptoms are normal for a brown recluse bite and should be assessed, but they do not provide information about complications from the bite, and therefore are not the priority.
If wrong: Fever and chills indicate systemic toxicity, which can lead to hemolytic reactions, kidney failure, pulmonary edema, cardiovascular collapse, and death. Assessing for a fever should be the nurse’s priority. All other symptoms are normal for a brown recluse bite and should be assessed, but they do not provide information about complications from the bite, and therefore are not the priority.

Q: A provider prescribes Crotalidae Polyvalent Immune Fab (CroFab) for a client who is admitted after being bitten by a pit viper snake. Which assessment should the nurse complete prior to administering this medication?
- Assess temperature and for signs of fever.
- Check the client’s creatinine kinase level.
- Ask about allergies to pineapple or papaya.
- Inspect the skin for signs of urticaria (hives).
A: Ask about allergies to pineapple or papaya.
If right: CroFab is an antivenom for pit viper snakebites. Clients should be assessed for hypersensitivity to bromelain (a pineapple derivative), papaya, and sheep protein prior to administration. During and after administration, the nurse should assess for urticaria, fever, and joint pain, which are signs of serum sickness.
If wrong: CroFab is an antivenom for pit viper snakebites. Clients should be assessed for hypersensitivity to bromelain (a pineapple derivative), papaya, and sheep protein prior to administration. During and after administration, the nurse should assess for urticaria, fever, and joint pain, which are signs of serum sickness.

Q: A provider prescribes diazepam (Valium) to a client who was bitten by a black widow spider. The client asks, “What is this medication for?” How should the nurse respond?
- “This medication is an antivenom for this type of bite.”
- “It will relieve your muscle rigidity and spasms.”
- “It prevents respiratory difficulty from excessive secretions.”
- “This medication will prevent respiratory failure.”
A: “It will relieve your muscle rigidity and spasms.”
If right: Black widow spider venom produces a syndrome known as latrodectism, which manifests as severe abdominal pain, muscle rigidity and spasm, hypertension, and nausea and vomiting. Diazepam is a muscle relaxant that can relieve pain related to muscle rigidity and spasms. It does not prevent respiratory difficulty or failure.
If wrong: Black widow spider venom produces a syndrome known as latrodectism, which manifests as severe abdominal pain, muscle rigidity and spasm, hypertension, and nausea and vomiting. Diazepam is a muscle relaxant that can relieve pain related to muscle rigidity and spasms. It does not prevent respiratory difficulty or failure.

Q: After teaching a client how to prevent altitude-related illnesses, a nurse assesses the client’s understanding. Which statement indicates the client needs additional teaching?
- “If my climbing partner can’t think straight, we should descend to a lower altitude.”
- “I will ask my provider about medications to help prevent acute mountain sickness.”
- “My partner and I will plan to sleep at a higher elevation to acclimate more quickly.”
- “I will drink plenty of fluids to stay hydrated while on the mountain.”
A: “My partner and I will plan to sleep at a higher elevation to acclimate more quickly.”
If right: Teaching to prevent altitude-related illness should include descending when symptoms start, staying hydrated, and taking acetazolamide (Diamox), which is commonly used to prevent and treat acute mountain sickness. The client should be taught to sleep at a lower elevation.
If wrong: Teaching to prevent altitude-related illness should include descending when symptoms start, staying hydrated, and taking acetazolamide (Diamox), which is commonly used to prevent and treat acute mountain sickness. The client should be taught to sleep at a lower elevation.

Q: A hospital responds to a local mass casualty event. Which action should the nurse supervisor take to prevent staff post-traumatic stress disorder during a mass casualty event?
- Provide water and healthy snacks for energy throughout the event.
- Schedule 16-hour shifts to allow for greater rest between shifts.
- Encourage counseling upon deactivation of the emergency response plan.
- Assign staff to different roles and units within the medical facility.
A: Provide water and healthy snacks for energy throughout the event.
If right: To prevent staff post-traumatic stress disorder during a mass casualty event, the nurses should use available counseling, encourage and support co-workers, monitor each other’s stress level and performance, take breaks when needed, talk about feelings with staff and managers, and drink plenty of water and eat healthy snacks for energy. Nurses should also keep in touch with family, friends, and significant others, and not work for more than 12 hours per day. Encouraging counseling upon deactivation of the plan, or after the emergency response is over, does not prevent stress during the casualty event. Assigning staff to unfamiliar roles or units may increase situational stress and is not an approach to prevent post-traumatic stress disorder.
If wrong: To prevent staff post-traumatic stress disorder during a mass casualty event, the nurses should use available counseling, encourage and support co-workers, monitor each other’s stress level and performance, take breaks when needed, talk about feelings with staff and managers, and drink plenty of water and eat healthy snacks for energy. Nurses should also keep in touch with family, friends, and significant others, and not work for more than 12 hours per day. Encouraging counseling upon deactivation of the plan, or after the emergency response is over, does not prevent stress during the casualty event. Assigning staff to unfamiliar roles or units may increase situational stress and is not an approach to prevent post-traumatic stress disorder.

Q: A client who is hospitalized with burns after losing the family home in a fire becomes angry and screams at a nurse when dinner is served late. How should the nurse respond?
- “Do you need something for pain right now?”
- “Please stop yelling. I brought dinner as soon as I could.”
- “I suggest that you get control of yourself.”
- “You seem upset. I have time to talk if you’d like.”
A: “You seem upset. I have time to talk if you’d like.”
If right: Clients should be allowed to ventilate their feelings of anger and despair after a catastrophic event. The nurse establishes rapport through active listening and honest communication and by recognizing cues that the client wishes to talk. Asking whether the client is in pain as the first response closes the door to open communication and limits the client’s options. Simply telling the client to stop yelling and to gain control does nothing to promote therapeutic communication.
If wrong: Clients should be allowed to ventilate their feelings of anger and despair after a catastrophic event. The nurse establishes rapport through active listening and honest communication and by recognizing cues that the client wishes to talk. Asking whether the client is in pain as the first response closes the door to open communication and limits the client’s options. Simply telling the client to stop yelling and to gain control does nothing to promote therapeutic communication.

Q: A nurse is field-triaging clients after an industrial accident. Which client condition should the nurse triage with a red tag?
- Dislocated right hip and an open fracture of the right lower leg
- Large contusion to the forehead and a bloody nose
- Closed fracture of the right clavicle and arm numbness
- Multiple fractured ribs and shortness of breath
A: Multiple fractured ribs and shortness of breath
If right: Clients who have an immediate threat to life are given the highest priority, are placed in the emergent or class I category, and are given a red triage tag. The client with multiple rib fractures and shortness of breath most likely has developed a pneumothorax, which may be fatal if not treated immediately. The client with the hip and leg problem and the client with the clavicle fracture would be classified as class II; these major but stable injuries can wait 30 minutes to 2 hours for definitive care. The client with facial wounds would be considered the “walking wounded” and classified as nonurgent.
If wrong: Clients who have an immediate threat to life are given the highest priority, are placed in the emergent or class I category, and are given a red triage tag. The client with multiple rib fractures and shortness of breath most likely has developed a pneumothorax, which may be fatal if not treated immediately. The client with the hip and leg problem and the client with the clavicle fracture would be classified as class II; these major but stable injuries can wait 30 minutes to 2 hours for definitive care. The client with facial wounds would be considered the “walking wounded” and classified as nonurgent.

Q: An emergency department (ED) charge nurse prepares to receive clients from a mass casualty within the community. What is the role of this nurse during the event?
- Ask ED staff to discharge clients from the medical-surgical units in order to make room for critically injured victims.
- Call additional medical-surgical and critical care nursing staff to come to the hospital to assist when victims are brought in.
- Inform the incident commander at the mass casualty scene about how many victims may be handled by the ED.
- Direct medical-surgical and critical care nurses to assist with clients currently in the ED while emergency staff prepare to receive the mass casualty victims.
A: Direct medical-surgical and critical care nurses to assist with clients currently in the ED while emergency staff prepare to receive the mass casualty victims.
If right: The ED charge nurse should direct additional nursing staff to help care for current ED clients while the ED staff prepares to receive mass casualty victims; however, they should not be assigned to the most critically ill or injured clients. The house supervisor and unit directors would collaborate to discharge stable clients. The hospital incident commander is responsible for mobilizing resources and would have the responsibility for calling in staff. The medical command physician would be the person best able to communicate with on-scene personnel regarding the ability to take more clients.
If wrong: The ED charge nurse should direct additional nursing staff to help care for current ED clients while the ED staff prepares to receive mass casualty victims; however, they should not be assigned to the most critically ill or injured clients. The house supervisor and unit directors would collaborate to discharge stable clients. The hospital incident commander is responsible for mobilizing resources and would have the responsibility for calling in staff. The medical command physician would be the person best able to communicate with on-scene personnel regarding the ability to take more clients.

Q: The hospital administration arranges for critical incident stress debriefing for the staff after a mass casualty incident. Which statement by the debriefing team leader is most appropriate for this situation?
- “You are free to express your feelings; whatever is said here stays here.”
- “Let’s evaluate what went wrong and develop policies for future incidents.”
- “This session is only for nursing and medical staff, not for ancillary personnel.”
- “Let’s pass around the written policy compliance form for everyone.”
A: “You are free to express your feelings; whatever is said here stays here.”
If right: Strict confidentiality during stress debriefing is essential so that staff members can feel comfortable sharing their feelings, which should be accepted unconditionally. Brainstorming improvements and discussing policies would occur during an administrative review. Any employee present during a mass casualty situation is eligible for critical incident stress management services.
If wrong: Strict confidentiality during stress debriefing is essential so that staff members can feel comfortable sharing their feelings, which should be accepted unconditionally. Brainstorming improvements and discussing policies would occur during an administrative review. Any employee present during a mass casualty situation is eligible for critical incident stress management services.

Q: A nurse is caring for a client whose wife died in a recent mass casualty accident. The client says, “I can’t believe that my wife is gone and I am left to raise my children all by myself.” How should the nurse respond?
- “Please accept my sympathies for your loss.”
- “I can call the hospital chaplain if you wish.”
- “You sound anxious about being a single parent.”
- “At least your children still have you in their lives.”
A: “You sound anxious about being a single parent.”
If right: Therapeutic communication includes active listening and honesty. This statement demonstrates that the nurse recognizes the client’s distress and has provided an opening for discussion. Extending sympathy and offering to call the chaplain do not give the client the opportunity to discuss feelings. Stating that the children still have one parent discounts the client’s feelings and situation.
If wrong: Therapeutic communication includes active listening and honesty. This statement demonstrates that the nurse recognizes the client’s distress and has provided an opening for discussion. Extending sympathy and offering to call the chaplain do not give the client the opportunity to discuss feelings. Stating that the children still have one parent discounts the client’s feelings and situation.

Q: A nurse cares for clients during a community-wide disaster drill. Once of the clients asks, “Why are the individuals with black tags not receiving any care?” How should the nurse respond?
- “To do the greatest good for the greatest number of people, it is necessary to sacrifice some.”
- “Not everyone will survive a disaster, so it is best to identify those people early and move on.”
- “In a disaster, extensive resources are not used for one person at the expense of many others.”
- “With black tags, volunteers can identify those who are dying and can give them comfort care.”
A: “In a disaster, extensive resources are not used for one person at the expense of many others.”
If right: In a disaster, military-style triage is used; this approach identifies the dead or expectant dead with black tags. This practice helps to maintain the goal of triage, which is doing the most good for the most people. Precious resources are not used for those with overwhelming critical injury or illness, so that they can be allocated to others who have a reasonable expectation of survival. Clients are not “sacrificed.” Telling students to move on after identifying the expectant dead belittles their feelings and does not provide an adequate explanation. Clients are not black-tagged to allow volunteers to give comfort care.
If wrong: In a disaster, military-style triage is used; this approach identifies the dead or expectant dead with black tags. This practice helps to maintain the goal of triage, which is doing the most good for the most people. Precious resources are not used for those with overwhelming critical injury or illness, so that they can be allocated to others who have a reasonable expectation of survival. Clients are not “sacrificed.” Telling students to move on after identifying the expectant dead belittles their feelings and does not provide an adequate explanation. Clients are not black-tagged to allow volunteers to give comfort care.

Q: A nurse wants to become involved in community disaster preparedness and is interested in helping set up and staff first aid stations or community acute care centers in the event of a disaster. Which organization is the best fit for this nurse’s interests?
- The Medical Reserve Corps
- The National Guard
- The health department
- A Disaster Medical Assistance Team
A: The Medical Reserve Corps
If right: The Medical Reserve Corps (MRC) consists of volunteer medical and public health care professionals who support the community during times of need. They may help staff hospitals, establish first aid stations or special needs shelters, or set up acute care centers in the community. The National Guard often performs search and rescue operations and law enforcement. The health department focuses on communicable disease tracking, treatment, and prevention. A Disaster Medical Assistance Team is deployed to a disaster area for up to 72 hours, providing many types of relief services.
If wrong: The Medical Reserve Corps (MRC) consists of volunteer medical and public health care professionals who support the community during times of need. They may help staff hospitals, establish first aid stations or special needs shelters, or set up acute care centers in the community. The National Guard often performs search and rescue operations and law enforcement. The health department focuses on communicable disease tracking, treatment, and prevention. A Disaster Medical Assistance Team is deployed to a disaster area for up to 72 hours, providing many types of relief services.

Q: A nurse wants to become part of a Disaster Medical Assistance Team (DMAT) but is concerned about maintaining licensure in several different states. Which statement best addresses these concerns?
- “Deployed DMAT providers are federal employees, so their licenses are good in all 50 states.”
- “The government has a program for quick licensure activation wherever you are deployed.”
- “During a time of crisis, licensure issues would not be the government’s priority concern.”
- “If you are deployed, you will be issued a temporary license in the state in which you are working.”
A: “Deployed DMAT providers are federal employees, so their licenses are good in all 50 states.”
If right: When deployed, DMAT health care providers are acting as agents of the federal government, and so are considered federal employees. Thus their licenses are valid in all 50 states. Licensure is an issue that the government would be concerned with, but no programs for temporary licensure or rapid activation are available.
If wrong: When deployed, DMAT health care providers are acting as agents of the federal government, and so are considered federal employees. Thus their licenses are valid in all 50 states. Licensure is an issue that the government would be concerned with, but no programs for temporary licensure or rapid activation are available.

Q: After a hospital’s emergency department (ED) has efficiently triaged, treated, and transferred clients from a community disaster to appropriate units, the hospital incident command officer wants to “stand down” from the emergency plan. Which question should the nursing supervisor ask at this time?
- “Are you sure no more victims are coming into the ED?”
- “Do all areas of the hospital have the supplies and personnel they need?”
- “Have all ED staff had the chance to eat and rest recently?”
- “Does the Chief Medical Officer agree this disaster is under control?”
A: “Do all areas of the hospital have the supplies and personnel they need?”
If right: Before “standing down,” the incident command officer ensures that the needs of the other hospital departments have been taken care of because they may still be stressed and may need continued support to keep functioning. Many more “walking wounded” victims may present to the ED; that number may not be predictable. Giving staff the chance to eat and rest is important, but all areas of the facility need that too. Although the Chief Medical Officer (CMO) may be involved in the incident, the CMO does not determine when the hospital can “stand down.”
If wrong: Before “standing down,” the incident command officer ensures that the needs of the other hospital departments have been taken care of because they may still be stressed and may need continued support to keep functioning. Many more “walking wounded” victims may present to the ED; that number may not be predictable. Giving staff the chance to eat and rest is important, but all areas of the facility need that too. Although the Chief Medical Officer (CMO) may be involved in the incident, the CMO does not determine when the hospital can “stand down.”

Q: A family in the emergency department is overwhelmed at the loss of several family members due to a shooting incident in the community. Which intervention should the nurse complete first?
- Provide a calm location for the family to cope and discuss needs.
- Call the hospital chaplain to stay with the family and pray for the deceased.
- Do not allow visiting of the victims until the bodies are prepared.
- Provide privacy for law enforcement to interview the family.
A: Provide a calm location for the family to cope and discuss needs.
If right: The nurse should first provide emotional support by encouraging relaxation, listening to the family’s needs, and offering choices when appropriate and possible to give some personal control back to individuals. The family may or may not want the assistance of religious personnel; the nurse should assess for this before calling anyone. Visiting procedures should take into account the needs of the family. The family may want to see the victim immediately and do not want to wait until the body can be prepared. The nurse should assess the family’s needs before assuming the body needs to be prepared first. The family may appreciate privacy, but this is not as important as assessing the family’s needs.
If wrong: The nurse should first provide emotional support by encouraging relaxation, listening to the family’s needs, and offering choices when appropriate and possible to give some personal control back to individuals. The family may or may not want the assistance of religious personnel; the nurse should assess for this before calling anyone. Visiting procedures should take into account the needs of the family. The family may want to see the victim immediately and do not want to wait until the body can be prepared. The nurse should assess the family’s needs before assuming the body needs to be prepared first. The family may appreciate privacy, but this is not as important as assessing the family’s needs.

Q: An emergency department charge nurse notes an increase in sick calls and bickering among the staff after a week with multiple trauma incidents. Which action should the nurse take?
- Organize a pizza party for each shift.
- Remind the staff of the facility’s sick-leave policy.
- Arrange for critical incident stress debriefing.
- Talk individually with staff members.
A: Arrange for critical incident stress debriefing.
If right: The staff may be suffering from critical incident stress and needs to have a debriefing by the critical incident stress management team to prevent the consequences of long-term, unabated stress. Speaking with staff members individually does not provide the same level of support as a group debriefing. Organizing a party and revisiting the sick-leave policy may be helpful, but are not as important and beneficial as a debriefing.
If wrong: The staff may be suffering from critical incident stress and needs to have a debriefing by the critical incident stress management team to prevent the consequences of long-term, unabated stress. Speaking with staff members individually does not provide the same level of support as a group debriefing. Organizing a party and revisiting the sick-leave policy may be helpful, but are not as important and beneficial as a debriefing.

Q: A nurse is teaching a wilderness survival class. Which statements should the nurse include about the prevention of hypothermia and frostbite? <b>(Select all that apply.)</b>
- “Wear synthetic clothing instead of cotton to keep your skin dry.”
- “Drink plenty of fluids. Brandy can be used to keep your body warm.”
- “Remove your hat when exercising to prevent the loss of heat.”
- “Wear sunglasses to protect skin and eyes from harmful rays.”
- “Know your physical limits. Come in out of the cold when limits are reached.”
A: “Wear synthetic clothing instead of cotton to keep your skin dry.”; “Wear sunglasses to protect skin and eyes from harmful rays.”; “Know your physical limits. Come in out of the cold when limits are reached.”
If right: To prevent hypothermia and frostbite, the nurse should teach clients to wear synthetic clothing (which moves moisture away from the body and dries quickly), layer clothing, and wear a hat, facemask, sunscreen, and sunglasses. The client should also be taught to drink plenty of fluids, but to avoid alcohol when participating in winter activities. Clients should know their physical limits and come in out of the cold when these limits have been reached.
If wrong: To prevent hypothermia and frostbite, the nurse should teach clients to wear synthetic clothing (which moves moisture away from the body and dries quickly), layer clothing, and wear a hat, facemask, sunscreen, and sunglasses. The client should also be taught to drink plenty of fluids, but to avoid alcohol when participating in winter activities. Clients should know their physical limits and come in out of the cold when these limits have been reached.

Q: A nurse teaches a client who has severe allergies to prevent bug bites. Which statements should the nurse include in this client’s teaching? <b>(Select all that apply.)</b>
- “Consult an exterminator to control bugs in and around your home.”
- “Do not swat at insects or wasps.”
- “Wear sandals whenever you go outside.”
- “Keep your prescribed epinephrine auto-injector in a bedside drawer.”
- “Use screens in your windows and doors to prevent flying insects from entering.”
A: “Consult an exterminator to control bugs in and around your home.”; “Do not swat at insects or wasps.”; “Use screens in your windows and doors to prevent flying insects from entering.”
If right: To prevent arthropod bites and stings, clients should wear protective clothing, cover garbage cans, use screens in windows and doors, inspect clothing and shoes before putting them on, consult an exterminator, remove nests, avoid swatting at insects, and carry a prescription epinephrine auto-injector at all times if they are known to be allergic to bee or wasp stings.
If wrong: To prevent arthropod bites and stings, clients should wear protective clothing, cover garbage cans, use screens in windows and doors, inspect clothing and shoes before putting them on, consult an exterminator, remove nests, avoid swatting at insects, and carry a prescription epinephrine auto-injector at all times if they are known to be allergic to bee or wasp stings.

Q: A nurse is providing health education at a community center. Which instructions should the nurse include in teaching about prevention of lightning injuries during a storm?<i> </i><b>(Select all that apply.)</b>
- Seek shelter inside a building or vehicle.
- Hide under a tall tree.
- Do not take a bath or shower.
- Turn off the television.
- Remove all body piercings.
- Put down golf clubs or gardening tools.
A: Seek shelter inside a building or vehicle.; Do not take a bath or shower.; Turn off the television.; Put down golf clubs or gardening tools.
If right: When thunder is heard, shelter should be sought in a safe area such as a building or an enclosed vehicle. Electrical equipment such as TVs and stereos should be turned off. Stay away from plumbing, water, and metal objects. Do not stand under an isolated tall tree or a structure such as a flagpole. Body piercings will not increase a person’s chances of being struck by lightning.
If wrong: When thunder is heard, shelter should be sought in a safe area such as a building or an enclosed vehicle. Electrical equipment such as TVs and stereos should be turned off. Stay away from plumbing, water, and metal objects. Do not stand under an isolated tall tree or a structure such as a flagpole. Body piercings will not increase a person’s chances of being struck by lightning.

Q: An emergency department nurse moves to a new city where heat-related illnesses are common. Which clients does the nurse anticipate being at higher risk for heat-related illnesses? <b>(Select all that apply.)</b>
- Homeless individuals
- Illicit drug users
- White people
- Hockey players
- Older adults
A: Homeless individuals; Illicit drug users; Older adults
If right: Some of the most vulnerable, at-risk populations for heat-related illness include older adults; blacks (more than whites); people who work outside, such as construction and agricultural workers (more men than women); homeless people; illicit drug users (especially cocaine users); outdoor athletes (recreational and professional); and members of the military who are stationed in countries with hot climates (e.g., Iraq, Afghanistan).
If wrong: Some of the most vulnerable, at-risk populations for heat-related illness include older adults; blacks (more than whites); people who work outside, such as construction and agricultural workers (more men than women); homeless people; illicit drug users (especially cocaine users); outdoor athletes (recreational and professional); and members of the military who are stationed in countries with hot climates (e.g., Iraq, Afghanistan).

Q: An emergency department nurse plans care for a client who is admitted with heat stroke. Which interventions should the nurse include in this client’s plan of care? <b>(Select all that apply.)</b>
- Administer oxygen via mask or nasal cannula.
- Administer ibuprofen, an antipyretic medication.
- Apply cooling techniques until core body temperature is less than 101°<sup> </sup>F.
- Infuse 0.9% sodium chloride via a large-bore intravenous cannula.
- Obtain baseline serum electrolytes and cardiac enzymes.
A: Administer oxygen via mask or nasal cannula.; Infuse 0.9% sodium chloride via a large-bore intravenous cannula.; Obtain baseline serum electrolytes and cardiac enzymes.
If right: Heat stroke is a medical emergency. Oxygen therapy and intravenous fluids should be provided, and baseline laboratory tests should be performed as quickly as possible. The client should be cooled until core body temperature is reduced to 102° F. Antipyretics should not be administered.
If wrong: Heat stroke is a medical emergency. Oxygen therapy and intravenous fluids should be provided, and baseline laboratory tests should be performed as quickly as possible. The client should be cooled until core body temperature is reduced to 102° F. Antipyretics should not be administered.

Q: Emergency medical services (EMS) brings a large number of clients to the emergency department following a mass casualty incident. The nurse identifies the clients with which injuries with yellow tags? <b>(Select all that apply.)</b>
- Partial-thickness burns covering both legs
- Open fractures of both legs with absent pedal pulses
- Neck injury and numbness of both legs
- Small pieces of shrapnel embedded in both eyes
- Head injury and difficult to arouse
- Bruising and pain in the right lower abdomen
A: Partial-thickness burns covering both legs; Neck injury and numbness of both legs; Small pieces of shrapnel embedded in both eyes; Bruising and pain in the right lower abdomen
If right: Clients with burns, spine injuries, eye injuries, and stable abdominal injuries should be treated within 30 minutes to 2 hours, and therefore should be identified with yellow tags. The client with the open fractures and the client with the head injury would be classified as urgent with red tags.
If wrong: Clients with burns, spine injuries, eye injuries, and stable abdominal injuries should be treated within 30 minutes to 2 hours, and therefore should be identified with yellow tags. The client with the open fractures and the client with the head injury would be classified as urgent with red tags.

Q: A nurse triages clients arriving at the hospital after a mass casualty. Which clients are correctly classified? <b>(Select all that apply.)</b>
- A 35-year-old female with severe chest pain: red tag
- A 42-year-old male with full-thickness body burns: green tag
- A 55-year-old female with a scalp laceration: black tag
- A 60-year-old male with an open fracture with distal pulses: yellow tag
- An 88-year-old male with shortness of breath and chest bruises: green tag
A: A 35-year-old female with severe chest pain: red tag; A 60-year-old male with an open fracture with distal pulses: yellow tag
If right: Red-tagged clients need immediate care due to life-threatening injuries. A client with severe chest pain would receive a red tag. Yellow-tagged clients have major injuries that should be treated within 30 minutes to 2 hours. A client with an open fracture with distal pulses would receive a yellow tag. The client with full-thickness body burns would receive a black tag. The client with a scalp laceration would receive a green tag, and the client with shortness of breath would receive a red tag.
If wrong: Red-tagged clients need immediate care due to life-threatening injuries. A client with severe chest pain would receive a red tag. Yellow-tagged clients have major injuries that should be treated within 30 minutes to 2 hours. A client with an open fracture with distal pulses would receive a yellow tag. The client with full-thickness body burns would receive a black tag. The client with a scalp laceration would receive a green tag, and the client with shortness of breath would receive a red tag.

Q: A hospital prepares to receive large numbers of casualties from a community disaster. Which clients should the nurse identify as appropriate for discharge or transfer to another facility? <b>(Select all that apply.)</b>
- Older adult in the medical decision unit for evaluation of chest pain
- Client who had open reduction and internal fixation of a femur fracture 3 days ago
- Client admitted last night with community-acquired pneumonia
- Infant who has a fever of unknown origin
- Client on the medical unit for wound care
A: Client who had open reduction and internal fixation of a femur fracture 3 days ago; Client on the medical unit for wound care
If right: The client with the femur fracture could be transferred to a rehabilitation facility, and the client on the medical unit for wound care should be transferred home with home health or to a long-term care facility for ongoing wound care. The client in the medical decision unit should be identified for dismissal if diagnostic testing reveals a noncardiac source of chest pain. The newly admitted client with pneumonia would not be a good choice because culture results are not yet available and antibiotics have not been administered long enough. The infant does not have a definitive diagnosis.
If wrong: The client with the femur fracture could be transferred to a rehabilitation facility, and the client on the medical unit for wound care should be transferred home with home health or to a long-term care facility for ongoing wound care. The client in the medical decision unit should be identified for dismissal if diagnostic testing reveals a noncardiac source of chest pain. The newly admitted client with pneumonia would not be a good choice because culture results are not yet available and antibiotics have not been administered long enough. The infant does not have a definitive diagnosis.

Q: A hospital prepares for a mass casualty event. Which functions are correctly paired with the personnel role? <b>(Select all that apply.)</b>
- Paramedic – Decides the number, acuity, and resource needs of clients
- Hospital incident commander – Assumes overall leadership for implementing the emergency plan
- Public information officer – Provides advanced life support during transportation to the hospital
- Triage officer – Rapidly evaluates each client to determine priorities for treatment
- Medical command physician – Serves as a liaison between the health care facility and the media
A: Hospital incident commander – Assumes overall leadership for implementing the emergency plan; Triage officer – Rapidly evaluates each client to determine priorities for treatment
If right: The hospital incident commander assumes overall leadership for implementing the emergency plan. The triage officer rapidly evaluates each client to determine priorities for treatment. The paramedic provides advanced life support during transportation to the hospital. The public information officer serves as a liaison between the health care facility and the media. The medical command physician decides the number, acuity, and resource needs of clients.
If wrong: The hospital incident commander assumes overall leadership for implementing the emergency plan. The triage officer rapidly evaluates each client to determine priorities for treatment. The paramedic provides advanced life support during transportation to the hospital. The public information officer serves as a liaison between the health care facility and the media. The medical command physician decides the number, acuity, and resource needs of clients.