Title: Competency 1 - Competency Exam - MASTER
Course: Fundamentals of Networking Technologies (13658)

This is the MASTER Test with all questions for Competency 1.

Q: Standards assist in network design.
- True
- False
A: True
If right: Objective 1.1
If wrong: Objective 1.1

Q: Standards define the ____ performance of a product or service.
- ideal
- most acceptable
- minimum acceptable
- maximum acceptable
A: minimum acceptable
If right: Objective 1.1
If wrong: Objective 1.1

Q: The goal of ____ is to establish international technological standards to facilitate the global exchange of information and barrier free trade.
- ANSI
- ISO
- ITU
- ISOC
A: ISO
If right: Objective 1.1
If wrong: Objective 1.1

Q: The ____ is a specialized United Nations agency that provides developing countries with technical expertise and equipment to advance those nations’ technological bases.
- ANSI
- ISO
- ITU
- ISOC
A: ITU
If right: Objective 1.1
If wrong: Objective 1.1

Q: ____ oversees the IAB (Internet Architecture Board).
- EIA
- ISOC
- ICANN
- ISO
A: ISOC
If right: Objective 1.1
If wrong: Objective 1.1

Q: Which IEEE standard describes Ethernet?
- 802.1
- 802.3
- 802.5
- 802.11
A: 802.3
If right: Objective 1.1
If wrong: Objective 1.1

Q: Which IEEE standard describes specifications for wireless transmissions?
- 802.1
- 802.3
- 802.5
- 802.11
A: 802.11
If right: Objective 1.1
If wrong: Objective 1.1

Q: ____________________ are documented agreements containing technical specifications or other precise criteria that stipulate how a particular product or service should be designed or performed.
A: Standards
If right: Objective 1.1
If wrong: Objective 1.1

Q: Your supervisor has asked you to correct several cable management problems that might be slowing down the network. Which organization’s standards will guide you in assessing your firm’s current cabling situation?
- ISO
- ITU
- TIA/EIA
- IEEE
A: TIA/EIA
If right: Objective 1.1
If wrong: Objective 1.1

Q: Which technology does the IEEE 802.11 specification describe?
- Network security
- Ethernet LANs
- Logical Link Control
- Wireless networks
A: Wireless networks
If right: Objective 1.1
If wrong: Objective 1.1

Q: You are configuring clients to communicate over an Ethernet LAN. Which of the following IEEE specifications will identify which frame type your client should use?
- 802.2
- 802.3
- 802.11
- 802.16
A: 802.3
If right: Objective 1.1
If wrong: Objective 1.1

Q: __________ is a collection of standards organizations representing 162 countries.
- ANSI
- ISO
- ITU
- ISOC
A: ISO
If right: Objective 1.1
If wrong: Objective 1.1

Q: __________ is an international society composed of engineering professionals with goals of promoting development and education in the electrical engineering and computer science fields.
- TIA/EIA
- IEEE
- ITU
- ISO
A: IEEE
If right: Objective 1.1
If wrong: Objective 1.1

Q: _________ is a professional membership society that helps to establish technical standards for the Internet.
- IANA
- ICANN
- ISO
- ISOC
A: ISOC
If right: Objective 1.1
If wrong: Objective 1.1

Q: ____________ determines standards for the electronics industry and other fields, such as chemical and nuclear engineering, health and safety, and construction.
- IEEE
- ISO
- ANSI
- ITU
A: ANSI
If right: Objective 1.1
If wrong: Objective 1.1

Q: Network functions are associated with only one layer of the OSI model.
- True
- False
A: False
If right: Objective 1.2
If wrong: Objective 1.2

Q: The Application layer includes software applications.
- True
- False
A: False
If right: Objective 1.2
If wrong: Objective 1.2

Q: Not all Transport layer protocols are concerned with reliability.
- True
- False
A: True
If right: Objective 1.2
If wrong: Objective 1.2

Q: For greater network efficiency, segmentation is preferred.
- True
- False
A: True
If right: Objective 1.2
If wrong: Objective 1.2

Q: Which statement accurately describes the OSI model?
- It describes how software programs interact with humans.
- It prescribes the type of hardware or software that should support each layer.
- It describes how software programs interact with other software programs.
- It describes a theoretical representation of what happens between two nodes communicating on a network.
A: It describes a theoretical representation of what happens between two nodes communicating on a network.
If right: Objective 1.2
If wrong: Objective 1.2

Q: Which OSI model layer initiates the flow of information?
- Physical
- Session
- Application
- Presentation
A: Application
If right: Objective 1.2
If wrong: Objective 1.2

Q: Which OSI model layer manages data encryption?
- Physical
- Session
- Application
- Presentation
A: Presentation
If right: Objective 1.2
If wrong: Objective 1.2

Q: Which type of protocol is useful when data must be transferred quickly?
- connection-oriented
- connectionless
- TCP
- IP
A: connectionless
If right: Objective 1.2
If wrong: Objective 1.2

Q: ____ is the process of reconstructing segmented data.
- Reassembly
- Reengineering
- Resegmenting
- Realigning
A: Reassembly
If right: Objective 1.2
If wrong: Objective 1.2

Q: Which Data Link sublayer manages flow control?
- LLC
- MAC
- Management layer
- Addressing layer
A: LLC
If right: Objective 1.2
If wrong: Objective 1.2

Q: Which Data Link sublayer manages access to the physical medium?
- LLC
- MAC
- Management layer
- Addressing layer
A: MAC
If right: Objective 1.2
If wrong: Objective 1.2

Q: ____________________ is the process of gauging the appropriate rate of transmission based on how fast the recipient can accept data.
A: Flow control
If right: Objective 1.2
If wrong: Objective 1.2

Q: ____________________ protocols establish a connection with another node before they begin transmitting data.
A: Connection oriented
If right: Objective 1.2
If wrong: Objective 1.2

Q: A network’s ____________________ represents the largest data unit the network will carry.
A: MTU (maximum transmission unit) / maximum transmission unit / MTU
If right: Objective 1.2
If wrong: Objective 1.2

Q: All protocols are routable.
- True
- False
A: False
If right: Objective 1.2
If wrong: Objective 1.2

Q: Protocols that can span more than one LAN (or LAN segment) are ____________________, because they carry Network layer addressing information that can be interpreted by a router.
A: routable
If right: Objective 1.2
If wrong: Objective 1.2

Q: Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for issuing acknowledgments (ACKs)?
- Application layer
- Data Link layer
- Network layer
- Transport layer
A: Transport layer
If right: Objective 1.2
If wrong: Objective 1.2

Q: Suppose your network is connected to another network via a router. Which OSI model layer provides the information necessary to direct data between the two networks ?
- Data Link layer
- Physical layer
- Network layer
- Session layer
A: Network layer
If right: Objective 1.2
If wrong: Objective 1.2

Q: Which OSI model layer is responsible for keeping open a communications path between your computer and the server when you dial in to a remote access server?
- Session layer
- Data Link layer
- Presentation layer
- Physical layer
A: Session layer
If right: Objective 1.2
If wrong: Objective 1.2

Q: Under what circumstances would the Transport layer use segmentation?
- When too many data frames are flooding into a receiving node’s NIC
- When more than 10 percent of transmitted frames are damaged
- When the destination node cannot accept the size of the data blocks transmitted by the source node
- When the source node requests that data blocks be segmented for faster processing
A: When the destination node cannot accept the size of the data blocks transmitted by the source node
If right: Objective 1.2
If wrong: Objective 1.2

Q: Which OSI model layer generates and detects voltage so as to transmit and receive signals carrying data?
- Physical layer
- Data Link layer
- Network layer
- Transport layer
A: Physical layer
If right: Objective 1.2
If wrong: Objective 1.2

Q: If the TCP protocol did not receive an acknowledgment for data it transmitted, what would it do?
- Issue its own acknowledgment, indicating to the recipient that it did not receive the acknowledgment it expected
- Issue a warning frame to tell the recipient it would retransmit the data if it did not receive the acknowledgment within a certain time frame
- Reestablish the connection with the recipient
- Retransmit the data to the recipient
A: Retransmit the data to the recipient
If right: Objective 1.2
If wrong: Objective 1.2

Q: At what OSI model layer do protocols manage data delivery priorities?
- Presentation layer
- Session layer
- Transport layer
- Network layer
A: Network layer
If right: Objective 1.2
If wrong: Objective 1.2

Q: What are the sublayers of the Data Link layer as defined in the IEEE 802 standards?
- Logical Link Control sublayer and Media Access Control sublayer
- Transport Control sublayer and Media Access Control sublayer
- Logical Link Control sublayer and Physical Addressing sublayer
- Transport Control sublayer and Data Link Control sublayer
A: Logical Link Control sublayer and Media Access Control sublayer
If right: Objective 1.2
If wrong: Objective 1.2

Q: In which of the following situations would it be most desirable to use a connectionless Transport layer protocol?
- When retrieving a spreadsheet from a busy file server
- When viewing a movie on the Web
- When connecting to a graphics-intensive Web site
- When sending an e-mail message to a long list of recipients
A: When viewing a movie on the Web
If right: Objective 1.2
If wrong: Objective 1.2

Q: Which of the following occurs at the Network Access layer of the TCP/IP model?
- Routing
- Address translation
- Password authentication
- Signaling
A: Signaling
If right: Objective 1.2
If wrong: Objective 1.2

Q: Which of the following layers is the presentation layer?
- Layer 3
- Layer 5
- Layer 6
- Layer 7
A: Layer 6
If right: Objective 1.2
If wrong: Objective 1.2

Q: What is the function of protocols and services at the Network layer of the OSI model?
- To manage the flow of communications over a channel
- To add segmentation and assembly information
- To encode and encrypt data
- To add logical addresses and properly route data
- To apply electrical pulses to the wire
A: To add logical addresses and properly route data
If right: Objective 1.2
If wrong: Objective 1.2

Q: At what layer of the TCP/IP model is routing information interpreted?
- Network Interface layer
- Data Link layer
- Internet layer
- Application layer
- Transport layer
A: Internet layer
If right: Objective 1.2
If wrong: Objective 1.2

Q: Which layer of the OSI model handles compression?
- Application
- Presentation
- Session
- Transport
A: Presentation
If right: Objective 1.2
If wrong: Objective 1.2

Q: Which layer of the OSI model ensures, error-free delivery, in sequence, without losses?
- Transport
- Network
- Data-Link
- Physical
A: Transport
If right: Objective 1.2
If wrong: Objective 1.2

Q: This layer of the OSI model is responsible for converting computer signals into voltages.
- Transport
- Network
- Data-link
- Physical
A: Physical
If right: Objective 1.2
If wrong: Objective 1.2

Q: Keep-alives are used by the ___________ layer of the OSI model to ensure that communication between nodes is still active?
- Application
- Presentation
- Session
- Transport
A: Session
If right: Objective 1.2
If wrong: Objective 1.2

Q: At which OSI layer does encryption take place.
- Application
- Presentation
- Session
- Transport
A: Presentation
If right: Objective 1.2
If wrong: Objective 1.2

Q: Which OSI layer delivers data without any errors and in the proper sequence?
- Application
- Presentation
- Session
- Transport
A: Transport
If right: Objective 1.2
If wrong: Objective 1.2

Q: At which layer of the OSI model is the signal placed on the cable?
- Transport
- Network
- Data-link
- Physical
A: Physical
If right: Objective 1.2
If wrong: Objective 1.2

Q: The ________ layer generates signals as changes in voltage at the NIC.
- Transport
- Network
- Data-link
- Physical
A: Physical
If right: Objective 1.2
If wrong: Objective 1.2

Q: The ________ layer translates network addresses into their physical counterparts.
- Transport
- Network
- Data-link
- Session
A: Network
If right: Objective 1.2
If wrong: Objective 1.2

Q: The ________ layer coordinates and maintains communications between two nodes on the network.
- Transport
- Network
- Session
- Presentation
A: Session
If right: Objective 1.2
If wrong: Objective 1.2

Q: The ________ layer serves as a translator..
- Transport
- Application
- Session
- Presentation
A: Presentation
If right: Objective 1.2
If wrong: Objective 1.2

Q: The ________ layer manages end-to-end delivery of data.
- Transport
- Network
- Session
- Presentation
A: Transport
If right: Objective 1.2
If wrong: Objective 1.2

Q: In which OSI model layer does TCP operate?
- Physical
- Transport
- Network
- Data Link
A: Transport
If right: Objective 1.3
If wrong: Objective 1.3

Q: Data-link layer protocols break large data units into ____.
- PDUs
- segments
- frames
- packets
A: frames
If right: Objective 1.3
If wrong: Objective 1.3

Q: Network layer protocols break large data units into ____.
- PDUs
- segments
- frames
- packets
A: packets
If right: Objective 1.3
If wrong: Objective 1.3

Q: Transport layer protocols break large data units into ____.
- PDUs
- segments
- frames
- packets
A: segments
If right: Objective 1.3
If wrong: Objective 1.3

Q: Each network node has ____ types of addresses.
- two
- three
- four
- five
A: two
If right: Objective 1.3
If wrong: Objective 1.3

Q: The process of determining the best path from Point A on one network to Point B on another is known as ____.
- mapping
- enhancing
- reconfiguring
- routing
A: routing
If right: Objective 1.3
If wrong: Objective 1.3

Q: In which OSI model layer does IP operate?
- Physical
- Transport
- Network
- Data Link
A: Network
If right: Objective 1.3
If wrong: Objective 1.3

Q: The ____ is a fixed number associated with a device’s NIC.
- LLC address
- frame address
- logical address
- physical address
A: physical address
If right: Objective 1.3
If wrong: Objective 1.3

Q: In which OSI model layer do hubs operate?
- Physical
- Network
- Data Link
- Physical and Data Link
A: Physical
If right: Objective 1.3
If wrong: Objective 1.3

Q: In which OSI model layer(s) do NICs operate?
- Physical
- Network and Physical
- Data Link
- Physical and Data Link
A: Physical and Data Link
If right: Objective 1.3
If wrong: Objective 1.3

Q: The Application layer separates data into ____________________, or discrete amounts of data.
A: PDUs (protocol data units) / protocol data units / PDUs
If right: Objective 1.3
If wrong: Objective 1.3

Q: Bridges are protocol independent.
- True
- False
A: True
If right: Objective 1.3
If wrong: Objective 1.3

Q: Repeaters operate in the ____ layer of the OSI model.
- Physical
- Network
- Transport
- Session
A: Physical
If right: Objective 1.3
If wrong: Objective 1.3

Q: A ____ is a repeater with more than one output port.
- bridge
- switch
- hub
- router
A: hub
If right: Objective 1.3
If wrong: Objective 1.3

Q: A ____ can interpret physical addressing information.
- repeater
- switch
- hub
- bridge
A: bridge
If right: Objective 1.3
If wrong: Objective 1.3

Q: Traditional switches operate at the ____ layer of the OSI model.
- Physical
- Data link
- Network
- Session
A: Data link
If right: Objective 1.3
If wrong: Objective 1.3

Q: Switches that operate anywhere between Layer 4 and Layer 7 are also known as ____ switches.
- peripheral
- STP
- content
- multiport
A: content
If right: Objective 1.3
If wrong: Objective 1.3

Q: A ____ is a multiport connectivity device that directs data between nodes on a network.
- switch
- bridge
- router
- gateway
A: router
If right: Objective 1.3
If wrong: Objective 1.3

Q: ____ are combinations of networking hardware and software that connect two dissimilar kinds of networks.
- Routers
- Switches
- Gateways
- Broadcast domains
A: Gateways
If right: Objective 1.3
If wrong: Objective 1.3

Q: In which two layers of the OSI model do NICs belong?
- Presentation and Application layers
- Transport and Network layers
- Network and Data Link layers
- Physical and Data Link layers
A: Physical and Data Link layers
If right: Objective 1.3
If wrong: Objective 1.3

Q: An IP address is an example of what type of address?
- Physical layer
- Network layer
- MAC sublayer
- Data Link sublayer
A: Network layer
If right: Objective 1.3
If wrong: Objective 1.3

Q: Which part of a MAC address is unique to each manufacturer?
- The destination ID
- The OUI
- The physical node ID
- The SYN
A: The OUI
If right: Objective 1.3
If wrong: Objective 1.3

Q: What is the purpose of the trailer field added to a frame in the Data Link layer?
- To indicate the sum of the error-checking algorithm
- To signal the rate at which a node can receive the data
- To mark the end of a frame
- To represent the frame’s sequence number
A: To mark the end of a frame
If right: Objective 1.3
If wrong: Objective 1.3

Q: Which layer of the OSI model encapsulates Network layer packets?
- Physical layer
- Session layer
- Data Link layer
- Transport layer
A: Data Link layer
If right: Objective 1.3
If wrong: Objective 1.3

Q: Suppose that, at the receiving node, a frame’s FCS doesn’t match the FCS it was issued at the transmitting node. What happens as a result?
- The receiving node’s Transport layer assesses the error and corrects it.
- The transmitting node’s Data Link layer assesses the error and corrects it.
- The receiving node’s Data Link layer requests a retransmission.
- The transmitting node’s Transport layer immediately issues a replacement frame.
A: The receiving node’s Data Link layer requests a retransmission.
If right: Objective 1.3
If wrong: Objective 1.3

Q: Which of the following would be found in a Data Link layer header?
- The packet’s fragmentation offset
- The packet’s sequence number
- The source’s logical address
- The source’s physical address
A: The source’s physical address
If right: Objective 1.3
If wrong: Objective 1.3

Q: At which layers of the OSI model are gateways capable of functioning?
- Layers 1 and 2
- Layers 2 and 3
- Layers 1, 2, and 3
- At all layers
A: At all layers
If right: Objective 1.3
If wrong: Objective 1.3

Q: Which two of the following devices operate only at the Physical layer of the OSI model?
- Hub
- Switch
- Router
- Bridge
- Repeater
A: Hub; Repeater
If right: Objective 1.3
If wrong: Objective 1.3

Q: Bridges operate at which layer of the OSI model?
- Physical
- Data-Link
- Network
- Transport
A: Data-Link
If right: Objective 1.3
If wrong: Objective 1.3

Q: An address is used to determine where to move data within a subnet.  This address functions at which OSI layer?
- Physical
- Data-Link
- Network
- Transport
A: Data-Link
If right: Objective 1.3
If wrong: Objective 1.3

Q: If your network does not need or use APIPA, it must be uninstalled to avoid conflicts.
- True
- False
A: False
If right: Objective 1.4
If wrong: Objective 1.4

Q: In IPv4 addressing, each IP address is a unique ____ number.
- 12-bit
- 32-bit
- 64-bit
- 128-bit
A: 32-bit
If right: Objective 1.4
If wrong: Objective 1.4

Q: In IPv4 addressing, a node with an IP address of 168.34.88.29 belongs to a Class ____ network.
- A
- B
- C
- D
A: B
If right: Objective 1.4
If wrong: Objective 1.4

Q: In IPv4 addressing, an IP address whose first octet is in the range of 192–223 belongs to a Class ____ network.
- A
- B
- C
- D
A: C
If right: Objective 1.4
If wrong: Objective 1.4

Q: In dotted decimal notation, a(n) ____ separates each decimal.
- dash
- slash
- colon
- period
A: period
If right: Objective 1.4
If wrong: Objective 1.4

Q: The default subnet mask for a Class B network is ____.
- 255.0.0.0
- 255.255.0.0
- 255.255.255.0
- 255.255.255.255
A: 255.255.0.0
If right: Objective 1.4
If wrong: Objective 1.4

Q: A(n) ____ address represents any one interface from a group of interfaces, any one of which can accept a transmission.
- anycast
- unicast
- multicast
- singlecast
A: anycast
If right: Objective 1.4
If wrong: Objective 1.4

Q: In IPv6, each address contains a(n) ____, or a variable-length field at the beginning of the address that indicates what type of address it is.
- Variable Prefix
- Address Prefix
- Format Prefix
- Field Prefix
A: Format Prefix
If right: Objective 1.4
If wrong: Objective 1.4

Q: A(n) ____________________ is a special 32-bit number that, when combined with a device’s IP address, informs the rest of the network about the segment or network to which the device is attached.
A: subnet mask
If right: Objective 1.4
If wrong: Objective 1.4

Q: ____________________ is a process of subdividing a single class of networks into multiple, smaller logical networks, or segments.
A: Subnetting
If right: Objective 1.4
If wrong: Objective 1.4

Q: Whether connecting to the Internet or to another computer within a LAN, every node on a network must have a unique ____________________.
Correct Answer(s):
A: IP address
If right: Objective 1.4
If wrong: Objective 1.4

Q: On a network using TCP/IP, some nodes may use multiple IP addresses.
- True
- False
A: True
If right: Objective 1.4
If wrong: Objective 1.4

Q: In CIDR, conventional network class distinctions do not exist.
- True
- False
A: True
If right: Objective 1.4
If wrong: Objective 1.4

Q: A class ____ network class is reserved for special purposes.
- A
- B
- C
- D
A: D
If right: Objective 1.4
If wrong: Objective 1.4

Q: In ____ addressing, the network information portion of an IPv4 address is limited to the first 8 bits in a Class A address.
- classful
- subnet
- stateful
- limited
A: classful
If right: Objective 1.4
If wrong: Objective 1.4

Q: In classful addressing, the Class B IPv4 address network ID is located in the ____.
- last 8 bits
- last 16 bits
- first 8 bits
- first 16 bits
A: first 16 bits
If right: Objective 1.4
If wrong: Objective 1.4

Q: In classful addressing, Class C IPv4 address host information is located in the ____.
- last 8 bits
- last 16 bits
- first 8 bits
- first 16 bits
A: last 8 bits
If right: Objective 1.4
If wrong: Objective 1.4

Q: Within a classful addressing subnet mask, the ____ bits indicate that corresponding bits in an IPv4 address contain network information.
- 0
- 1
- first eight
- last eight
A: 1
If right: Objective 1.4
If wrong: Objective 1.4

Q: Within a classful addressing, ____ is the default subnet mask for a Class C address.
- 255.255.255.255
- 255.255.255.0
- 255.255.0.0
- 255.0.0.0
A: 255.255.255.0
If right: Objective 1.4
If wrong: Objective 1.4

Q: When using classful IPv4 addressing, a network ID always ends with an octet of ____.
- 0
- 00000000
- 1
- 255
A: 0
If right: Objective 1.4
If wrong: Objective 1.4

Q: Because the octets equal to 0 and 255 are ____, only the numbers 1 through 254 can be used for host information in an IPv4 address.
- unobtainable
- out-of-range
- reserved
- open for general use
A: reserved
If right: Objective 1.4
If wrong: Objective 1.4

Q: CIDR notation takes the form of the network ID followed by a(n) ____, followed by the number of bits that are used for the extended network prefix.
- dash ( - )
- underscore ( _ )
- backward slash ( \ )
- forward slash ( / )
A: forward slash ( / )
If right: Objective 1.4
If wrong: Objective 1.4

Q: ____________________ separates a network into multiple logically defined segments, or subnets.
A: Subnetting
If right: Objective 1.4
If wrong: Objective 1.4

Q: The combination of additional bits used for subnet information plus the existing network ID is known as the ____________________.
Correct Answer(s):
A: extended network prefix
If right: Objective 1.4
If wrong: Objective 1.4

Q: Before you connect to your office network, you want to verify that your workstation’s TCP/IPv6 protocols are functioning. Which of the following addresses do you ping?
- ::1
- FE08::0
- 0::0
- 1::1
A: ::1
If right: Objective 1.4
If wrong: Objective 1.4

Q: Suppose you have a workstation that uses the IP address 203.12.176.55 on a traditional IPv4 network. To what network class does the workstation belong?
- A
- B
- C
- D
A: C
If right: Objective 1.4
If wrong: Objective 1.4

Q: How many bytes are used for an IPv4 address?
- 4
- 16
- 31
- 64
A: 4
If right: Objective 1.4
If wrong: Objective 1.4

Q: Suppose your computer's IP address is 155.61.9.188, and your network administrator has not subnetted the network to which you're connected. What is your computer's subnet mask?
- 255.0.0.0
- 255.255.0.0
- 255.255.255.0
- 255.255.255.255
A: 255.255.0.0
If right: Objective 1.4
If wrong: Objective 1.4

Q: Suppose you send data to the 11111111 11111111 11111111 11111111 IP address on an IPv4 network. To what device(s) are you transmitting?
- Your own device
- All devices that are reachable
- All devices on your network segment
- Your domain name server
A: All devices on your network segment
If right: Objective 1.4
If wrong: Objective 1.4

Q: Suppose you send data to an address that begins with the Format Prefix FF0E on a network running IPv6. To what device(s) are you transmitting?
- All devices on your network segment
- All devices that are reachable
- Your own device
- Your domain name server
A: All devices that are reachable
If right: Objective 1.4
If wrong: Objective 1.4

Q: Which of the following IP addresses might have been assigned by APIPA?
- 169.254.23.5
- 255.254.254.0
- 192.285.128.3
- 255.127.0.0
A: 169.254.23.5
If right: Objective 1.4
If wrong: Objective 1.4

Q: A node on a network has an IP address of 140.133.28.72 and its subnet mask is 255.248.0.0. What type of subnetting has been used on this network?
- Classless
- Supernetting
- Classful
- No subnetting has been used.
A: Supernetting
If right: Objective 1.4
If wrong: Objective 1.4

Q: What is the default subnet mask for a Class C network?
- 0.0.0.0
- 255.255.255.0
- 255.255.0.0
- 255.0.0.0
A: 255.255.255.0
If right: Objective 1.4
If wrong: Objective 1.4

Q: Which of the following is a valid MAC address?
- C3:00:50:00:FF:FF
- 153.101.24.3
- ::9F53
- FE80::32:1CA3:B0E2
- D0:00:00:00
A: C3:00:50:00:FF:FF
If right: Objective 1.4
If wrong: Objective 1.4

Q: What is the network ID for a network that contains the group of IP addresses from 194.73.44.10 through 194.73.44.254 and is not subnetted?
- 194.1.1.1
- 194.73.0.0
- 194.73.44.1
- 194.73.44.255
- 194.73.44.0
A: 194.73.44.0
If right: Objective 1.4
If wrong: Objective 1.4

Q: In IPv6, which of the following is the loopback address?
- 1.0.0.1
- 127:0:0:0:0:0:0:1
- FE80::1
- ::1
- 127.0.0.1
A: ::1
If right: Objective 1.4
If wrong: Objective 1.4

Q: Which of the following is a reason for using subnetting?
- To facilitate easier migration from IPv4 to IPv6 addressing
- To enable a network to use DHCP
- To make more efficient use of limited numbers of legitimate IP addresses
- To reduce the likelihood for user error when modifying TCP/IP properties
- To limit the number of addresses that can be assigned to one network interface
A: To make more efficient use of limited numbers of legitimate IP addresses
If right: Objective 1.4
If wrong: Objective 1.4

Q: What is the default subnet mask for the following IP address: 154.13.44.87?
- 255.255.255.255
- 255.255.255.0
- 255.255.0.0
- 255.0.0.0
- 0.0.0.0
A: 255.255.0.0
If right: Objective 1.4
If wrong: Objective 1.4

Q: If a Windows workstation is configured to use DHCP, but cannot find a DHCP server, it will assign itself an address and subnet mask. Which of the following IPv4 addresses might it assign itself?
- 129.0.0.1
- 255.255.255.255
- 123.45.67.89
- 169.254.1.120
- 987.65.432.1
A: 169.254.1.120
If right: Objective 1.4
If wrong: Objective 1.4

Q: How many bits are in an IPv6 address?
- 16
- 32
- 64
- 128
- 256
A: 128
If right: Objective 1.4
If wrong: Objective 1.4

Q: In IPv6 addressing, which of the following Format Prefixes indicates that an address belongs to a multicast group?
- 00FF
- 1F3E
- FF02
- 0001
- FEC0
A: FF02
If right: Objective 1.4
If wrong: Objective 1.4

Q: Which of the following represents a MAC address?
- 2BA3:D987:9BAD:2AC0:56DC:1011:CABD:987C
- 00-E0-20-27-37-46
- 00-H0-20-27-37-46
- 198.214.191.56
A: 00-E0-20-27-37-46
If right: Objective 1.4
If wrong: Objective 1.4

Q: An IPv6 address for which uniqueness has been verified and from which unicast traffic can be sent and received is classified as
- Deprecated
- Valid
- Tentative
- Invalid
A: Valid
If right: Objective 1.4
If wrong: Objective 1.4

Q: The single Class C network,  216.32.23.0, can be broken down into multiple smaller networks by using __________.
- Subnetting
- Static addressing
- Spoofing
- Supernetting
A: Subnetting
If right: Objective 1.4
If wrong: Objective 1.4

Q: From the list of devices and objects give, select only those that would represent the minimum configuration necessary in a Zeroconf network.
- Hub
- DHCP server
- Router/firewall
- Crossover cable
- Wi-fi Computer 1
- Wi-fi Computer 2
A: Wi-fi Computer 1; Wi-fi Computer 2
If right: Objective 1.4
If wrong: Objective 1.4

Q: Which of the following would you use to connect networks using completely different protocols?
- repeater
- router
- gateway
- bridge
A: gateway
If right: Objective 1-4
If wrong: Objective 1-4

Q: On an Ethernet network, a(n) ____ is the portion of a network in which collisions occur if two nodes transmit data at the same time.
- collision domain
- crash domain
- interference domain
- duplicate domain
A: collision domain
If right: Objective 1.5
If wrong: Objective 1.5

Q: In data networks, the task of directing information efficiently to the correct destination is handled by connectivity devices, primarily switches and routers.
- True
- False
A: True
If right: Objective 1.5
If wrong: Objective 1.5

Q: Switches can create ____ by grouping a number of ports into a broadcast domain.
- trunks
- spanning trees
- gateways
- VLANs
A: VLANs
If right: Objective 1.5
If wrong: Objective 1.5

Q: To eliminate the possibility of a broadcast storm, switches and bridges implement the ____.
- RIP (Routing Information Protocol)
- STP (Spanning Tree Protocol)
- BGP (Border Gateway Protocol)
- OSPF (Open Shortest Path First) protocol
A: STP (Spanning Tree Protocol)
If right: Objective 1.5
If wrong: Objective 1.5

Q: ____ routing is a technique in which a network administrator programs a router to use specific paths between nodes.
- Static
- Dynamic
- Best path
- Link-state
A: Static
If right: Objective 1.5
If wrong: Objective 1.5

Q: A router that directs data between nodes on an autonomous LAN (or one owned and operated by a single organization) is known as a(n) ____________________ router.
A: interior
If right: Objective 1.5
If wrong: Objective 1.5

Q: How do bridges keep track of whether they should forward or filter frames?
- From each frame they receive, they extract source addresses; those frames whose source addresses don’t belong to the bridge’s broadcast domain are filtered.
- They hold each frame until it is requested by the destination node, at which time the bridge forwards the data to the correct segment based on its MAC address.
- They maintain a filtering database that identifies which frames can be filtered and which should be forwarded, based on their destination MAC address.
- They compare the incoming frame’s network address to known addresses on both segments and filter those that don’t belong to either.
A: They maintain a filtering database that identifies which frames can be filtered and which should be forwarded, based on their destination MAC address.
If right: Objective 1.5
If wrong: Objective 1.5

Q: Which of the following distinguishes switches from repeating devices, such as hubs?
- Switches separate collision domains.
- Switches separate broadcast domains.
- Switches can alert the network administrator to high data collision rates.
- Switches do not examine Network layer protocol information, which makes them faster than repeating devices.
A: Switches separate collision domains.
If right: Objective 1.5
If wrong: Objective 1.5

Q: In cut-through switching, which frame field does the switch never read?
- Start frame delimiter
- Source address
- Frame check sequence
- Protocol type
A: Frame check sequence
If right: Objective 1.5
If wrong: Objective 1.5

Q: In STP, what device acts as a guide to setting the best paths between switches?
- Root bridge
- Workgroup bridge
- Parent bridge
- Link bridge
A: Root bridge
If right: Objective 1.5
If wrong: Objective 1.5

Q: Which of the following routing protocols is used on the Internet’s backbone?
- EIGRP
- OSPF
- BGP
- RIP
A: BGP
If right: Objective 1.5
If wrong: Objective 1.5

Q: Which of the following types of routing protocols allows routers to exchange information about best paths with their neighboring routers only?
- Link-state
- Hybrid
- Distance-vector
- All of the above
A: Distance-vector
If right: Objective 1.5
If wrong: Objective 1.5

Q: Why is a large, busy network more likely to use dynamic routing?
- Because dynamic routing is the default option on most routers, and it is difficult to configure routers to use static routing
- Because dynamic routing is the only routing method compatible with the BGP routing protocol, which is necessary for routing between WANs
- Because dynamic routing allows for stricter IP filtering and, therefore, offers greater data security than static routing
- Because dynamic routing automatically selects the most efficient route between nodes, reducing the possibility for human error
A: Because dynamic routing automatically selects the most efficient route between nodes, reducing the possibility for human error
If right: Objective 1.5
If wrong: Objective 1.5

Q: A packet on a network using the RIP routing method has been passed from one connectivity device to another 15 times. What happens when it gets passed to one more device?
- It is returned to the node that originally transmitted it.
- It is encapsulated by the routing protocol and retransmitted.
- It is forwarded to its destination by the last device.
- It is discarded.
A: It is discarded.
If right: Objective 1.5
If wrong: Objective 1.5

Q: What is a router’s convergence time?
- The time a router takes to interpret Layer 2 addressing information for any given frame
- The maximum amount of time a router is allowed for choosing the best path
- The time it takes for a router to recognize a best path in the event of a change or network outage
- The time it takes for border routers to exchange routing table information
A: The time it takes for a router to recognize a best path in the event of a change or network outage
If right: Objective 1.5
If wrong: Objective 1.5

Q: When differentiating hubs from switches, which of the following is FALSE?
- Hubs have multiple collision domains.
- Switches have multiple collision domains.
- Switches have a single broadcast domain.
- Hubs have a single broadcast domain.
A: Hubs have multiple collision domains.
If right: Objective 1.5
If wrong: Objective 1.5

Q: Which two of the following routing protocols offer fast convergence time and can be used on interior or border routers?
- RIP
- RIPv2
- OSPF
- BGP
- EIGRP
A: OSPF; EIGRP
If right: Objective 1.5
If wrong: Objective 1.5

Q: Which of the following devices separates broadcast domains?
- Hub
- Switch
- Bridge
- Repeater
- Router
A: Router
If right: Objective 1.5
If wrong: Objective 1.5

Q: Which of the following routing protocols has the poorest convergence time?
- RIP
- EIGRP
- OSPF
- BGP
- IGRP
A: RIP
If right: Objective 1.5
If wrong: Objective 1.5

Q: How does STP (Spanning Tree Protocol) prevent or stop broadcast storms?
- It examines the source IP address field in each broadcast packet and temporarily blocks traffic from that address.
- It enables routers to choose one set of best paths and ensures that alternate paths are used only when the best paths are obstructed.
- It enables switches to calculate paths that avoid potential loops and artificially blocks the links that would complete a loop.
- It enables firewalls to keep access lists that name hosts known for high-volume broadcast traffic and block those hosts from transmitting to the network.
- It helps routers define the boundaries of a broadcast domain.
A: It enables switches to calculate paths that avoid potential loops and artificially blocks the links that would complete a loop.
If right: Objective 1.5
If wrong: Objective 1.5

Q: Using RIP, what is the maximum number of hops a packet can take between its source and its destination?
- 3
- 5
- 10
- 15
- 18
A: 15
If right: Objective 1.5
If wrong: Objective 1.5

Q: If the standard port number for the Telnet service is 23, a host whose IPv4 address is 10.43.3.87 has a socket address for Telnet of ____.
- 10.43.3.87/23
- 10.43.3.87:23
- 10.43.3.87-23
- 23:10.43.3.87
A: 10.43.3.87:23
If right: Objective 1.6
If wrong: Objective 1.6

Q: SMTP operates from port ____.
- 25
- 11
- 110
- 250
A: 25
If right: Objective 1.6
If wrong: Objective 1.6

Q: POP3 (Post Office Protocol, version 3) relies on TCP and operates over port ____.
- 25
- 11
- 110
- 250
A: 110
If right: Objective 1.6
If wrong: Objective 1.6

Q: You issue a transmission from your workstation to the following socket address on your LAN: 10.1.1.145:110. Assuming your network uses standard port designations, what Application layer protocol are you using?
- FTP
- POP
- Telnet
- HTTP
A: POP
If right: Objective 1.6
If wrong: Objective 1.6

Q: Which of the following uses port 22 by default?
- TELNET
- SSH
- FTP
- DNS
A: SSH
If right: Objective 1.6
If wrong: Objective 1.6

Q: At which of the following layers does the HTTP protocol operate?
- Layer 1
- Layer 4
- Layer 5
- Layer 7
A: Layer 7
If right: Objective 1.6
If wrong: Objective 1.6

Q: Which transport protocol and TCP/IP port does the Telnet utility use?
- UDP, port 23
- TCP, port 21
- UDP, port 22
- TCP, port 23
- UDP, port 21
A: TCP, port 23
If right: Objective 1.6
If wrong: Objective 1.6

Q: Which of the following ports would be used during a domain name lookup?
- 22
- 23
- 53
- 110
- 443
A: 53
If right: Objective 1.6
If wrong: Objective 1.6

Q: Which transport protocol would be validated by successfully using FTP?
- ICMP
- UDP
- TCP
- IP
A: TCP
If right: Objective 1.6
If wrong: Objective 1.6

Q: You have implemented a permanent connection to the Internet for your home network that consists of three workstations.  You are unable to access Internet sites by their Domain Names, but you can access them by their IP addresses.  Which of the following is most likely the cause of this problem?
- Your DSL router is not logged into the ISP
- You do not have IP configured on your clients
- Your DSL router is blocking port 21
- Your DSL router is blocking port 53
A: Your DSL router is blocking port 53
If right: Objective 1.6
If wrong: Objective 1.6

Q: What is the default port for FTP?
- 21
- 23
- 25
- 80
A: 21
If right: Objective 1.6
If wrong: Objective 1.6

Q: What is the default port for HTTP?
- 21
- 23
- 25
- 80
A: 80
If right: Objective 1.6
If wrong: Objective 1.6

Q: What is the default port for POP?
- 23
- 25
- 110
- 143
A: 110
If right: Objective 1.6
If wrong: Objective 1.6

Q: What is the default port for telnet?
- 20
- 21
- 23
- 25
A: 23
If right: Objective 1.6
If wrong: Objective 1.6

Q: What is the default port for IMAP?
- 23
- 25
- 110
- 143
A: 143
If right: Objective 1.6
If wrong: Objective 1.6

Q: What is the default port for HTTPS?
- 21
- 53
- 80
- 443
A: 443
If right: Objective 1.6
If wrong: Objective 1.6

Q: What is the default port for NTP?
- 23
- 53
- 123
- 143
A: 123
If right: Objective 1.6
If wrong: Objective 1.6

Q: ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) reports on the success or failure of data delivery.
- True
- False
A: True
If right: Objective 1.7
If wrong: Objective 1.7

Q: The format of ARP tables is the same from one operating system to another.
- True
- False
A: False
If right: Objective 1.7
If wrong: Objective 1.7

Q: TCP is a(n) ____ subprotocol.
- open-ended
- indiscriminating
- connection-oriented
- connectionless
A: connection-oriented
If right: Objective 1.7
If wrong: Objective 1.7

Q: A(n) ____ number is the address on a host where an application makes itself available to incoming or outgoing data.
- port
- source
- destination
- application
A: port
If right: Objective 1.7
If wrong: Objective 1.7

Q: ____ is more efficient than TCP for carrying messages that fit within one data packet.
- IP
- UDP
- ICMP
- IGMP
A: UDP
If right: Objective 1.7
If wrong: Objective 1.7

Q: A UDP header contains ____fields.
- four
- six
- eight
- ten
A: four
If right: Objective 1.7
If wrong: Objective 1.7

Q: The subprotocol that enables TCP/IP to internetwork - that is, to traverse more than one LAN segment and more than one type of network through a router is ____.
- TCP
- ICMP
- UDP
- IP
A: IP
If right: Objective 1.7
If wrong: Objective 1.7

Q: ____ operates at the Network layer and manages multicasting.
- IGMP
- ICMP
- UDP
- IP
A: IGMP
If right: Objective 1.7
If wrong: Objective 1.7

Q: ____ ARP table entries are created when a client makes an ARP request that cannot be satisfied by data already in the ARP table.
- Static
- Dynamic
- Temporary
- On-demand
A: Dynamic
If right: Objective 1.7
If wrong: Objective 1.7

Q: In the TCP/IP protocol suite, ____ is the core protocol responsible for logical addressing.
- TCP
- UDP
- IP
- ARP
A: IP
If right: Objective 1.7
If wrong: Objective 1.7

Q: ____ is a terminal emulation protocol used to log on to remote hosts using the TCP/IP protocol suite.
- NNTP
- NTP
- Telnet
- FTP
A: Telnet
If right: Objective 1.7
If wrong: Objective 1.7

Q: ____ is a simple Application layer protocol used to synchronize the clocks of computers on a network.
- NNTP
- NTP
- PING
- ARP
A: NTP
If right: Objective 1.7
If wrong: Objective 1.7

Q: ____ is a utility that can verify that TCP/IP is installed, bound to the NIC, configured correctly, and communicating with the network.
- ARP
- PING
- Telnet
- FTP
A: PING
If right: Objective 1.7
If wrong: Objective 1.7

Q: TCP ensures reliable data delivery through sequencing and ____________________.
A: checksums
If right: Objective 1.7
If wrong: Objective 1.7

Q: The MIME standard replaces SMTP.
- True
- False
A: False
If right: Objective 1.7
If wrong: Objective 1.7

Q: POP3’s design makes it best suited to users who retrieve their mail from the same workstation all the time.
- True
- False
A: True
If right: Objective 1.7
If wrong: Objective 1.7

Q: IMAP4 servers require less storage space and usually more processing resources than POP servers do.
- True
- False
A: False
If right: Objective 1.7
If wrong: Objective 1.7

Q: The most popular mail server programs are Sendmail and ____.
- Eudora
- Microsoft Outlook
- AOL mail
- Microsoft Exchange Server
A: Microsoft Exchange Server
If right: Objective 1.7
If wrong: Objective 1.7

Q: An example of a popular client email software is ____.
- MIME
- Microsoft Outlook
- Sendmail
- Microsoft Exchange Server
A: Microsoft Outlook
If right: Objective 1.7
If wrong: Objective 1.7

Q: The standard message format specified by SMTP allows for lines that contain no more than ____ ASCII characters.
- 100
- 1000
- 10,000
- 1,000,000
A: 1000
If right: Objective 1.7
If wrong: Objective 1.7

Q: IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol) is a mail retrieval protocol that was developed as a more sophisticated alternative to ____.
- POP3
- POP
- SMTP
- MIME
A: POP3
If right: Objective 1.7
If wrong: Objective 1.7

Q: ____________________ is the protocol responsible for moving messages from one mail server to another over TCP/IP-based networks.
A: SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) / Simple Mail Transfer Protocol / SMTP
If right: Objective 1.7
If wrong: Objective 1.7

Q: ____________________ is a standard for encoding and interpreting binary files, images, video, and non-ASCII character sets within an e-mail message.
A: MIME (Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions) / Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions / MIME
If right: Objective 1.7
If wrong: Objective 1.7

Q: All VoIP calls are carried over the Internet.
- True
- False
A: False
If right: Objective 1.7
If wrong: Objective 1.7

Q: It is more difficult to transmit VoIP and video over IP signals over a packet-switched network than it is to transmit data signals.
- True
- False
A: True
If right: Objective 1.7
If wrong: Objective 1.7

Q: ____ is the use of one network to simultaneously carry voice, video, and data communications.
- Multicasting
- Unicasting
- Divergence
- Convergence
A: Convergence
If right: Objective 1.7
If wrong: Objective 1.7

Q: ____ describes the use of any network to carry voice signals using the TCP/IP protocol.
- Telephony
- Internet telephony
- IP telephony
- Voice telephony
A: IP telephony
If right: Objective 1.7
If wrong: Objective 1.7

Q: When VoIP relies on the Internet, it is often called ____.
- telephony
- Internet telephony
- IP telephony
- voice telephony
A: Internet telephony
If right: Objective 1.7
If wrong: Objective 1.7

Q: IPTV, videoconferencing, streaming video, and IP multicasting belong to the range of services known as ____.
- voice over IP
- data over IP
- video over IP
- Web over IP
A: video over IP
If right: Objective 1.7
If wrong: Objective 1.7

Q: ____ messaging is a service that makes several forms of communication available from a single user interface.
- Unified
- Instant
- Diversified
- Open
A: Unified
If right: Objective 1.7
If wrong: Objective 1.7

Q: SIP regulates ____ for VoIP or video-over-IP clients and servers.
- call signaling only
- control only
- call signaling and control
- communication between media gateways
A: call signaling and control
If right: Objective 1.7
If wrong: Objective 1.7

Q: ____ is preferred over TCP for real-time applications such as telephone conversations and videoconferencing.
- RTP
- UDP
- RTCP
- SIP
A: UDP
If right: Objective 1.7
If wrong: Objective 1.7

Q: When streaming videos are supplied via the Web, they are often called ____________________.
A: Webcasts
If right: Objective 1.7
If wrong: Objective 1.7

Q: What happens to an IPv6 packet when its hop limit reaches 0?
- It is retransmitted by the connectivity device that last received it.
- It is bounced back to its source node.
- It is discarded.
- It is assigned a new hop limit.
A: It is discarded.
If right: Objective 1.7
If wrong: Objective 1.7

Q: What is the function of ARP?
- To acknowledge that a data frame was received
- To obtain the IP address of a host, then map that IP address to a registered domain name
- To measure the number of dropped packets in a single transmission
- To obtain the MAC address of a host, and then map that MAC address to the host's IP address
A: To obtain the MAC address of a host, and then map that MAC address to the host's IP address
If right: Objective 1.7
If wrong: Objective 1.7

Q: Which of the following applications would be best suited to multicasting?
- Sending e-mail to your coworker
- Participating in a company-wide video conference via the Internet
- Updating an inventory database
- Logging on to a host over the Internet
A: Participating in a company-wide video conference via the Internet
If right: Objective 1.7
If wrong: Objective 1.7

Q: Which two of the following are benefits of using IMAP4 relative to POP3?
- It allows users to review and delete mail without downloading it from the mail server.
- It provides mail delivery guarantees.
- It allows users to modify mail server settings.
- It provides better encryption for message attachments.
- It enables multiple users to easily share a central mailbox.
A: It allows users to review and delete mail without downloading it from the mail server.; It enables multiple users to easily share a central mailbox.
If right: Objective 1.7
If wrong: Objective 1.7

Q: What Network layer protocol does the traceroute utility use to obtain its information about paths between a source and destination?
- UDP
- ARP
- NTP
- ICMP
A: ICMP
If right: Objective 1.7
If wrong: Objective 1.7

Q: Watching a YouTube video on the Web is an example of which of the following types of video-over-IP services?
- Videoconferencing
- Streaming video
- IP multicasting
- IPTV
A: Streaming video
If right: Objective 1.7
If wrong: Objective 1.7

Q: What type of video-over-IP service relies on full-duplex communication?
- Webcasting
- Streaming video
- Videoconferencing
- IPTV
A: Videoconferencing
If right: Objective 1.7
If wrong: Objective 1.7

Q: What protocol manages addressing for multicast groups?
- IGMP
- MGCP
- MEGACO
- H.245
A: IGMP
If right: Objective 1.7
If wrong: Objective 1.7

Q: You are using Skype to initiate a video call with a friend in another state. Which of the following protocols is generating segments at the Transport layer of this transmission?
- ICMP
- TCP
- FTP
- UDP
A: UDP
If right: Objective 1.7
If wrong: Objective 1.7

Q: At what layer of the OSI model does RTP operate?
- Transport
- Presentation
- Session
- Application
A: Application
If right: Objective 1.7
If wrong: Objective 1.7

Q: What can RTCP do that RTP cannot?
- Issue timestamps for every transmission
- Assign sequence numbers to each packet in a transmission
- Report on the degree of packet loss and delay in a connection
- Modify each IP datagram to assign a priority level
A: Report on the degree of packet loss and delay in a connection
If right: Objective 1.7
If wrong: Objective 1.7

Q: Which of the following protocols is commonly used for communication between network management agents and applications?
- IMAP
- SMTP
- NTP
- SNMP
A: SNMP
If right: Objective 1.7
If wrong: Objective 1.7

Q: Which of the following protocols is used by a web browser to display a web page?
- SMTP
- FTP
- HTTP
- IMAP4
A: HTTP
If right: Objective 1.7
If wrong: Objective 1.7

Q: Suppose you want to copy files from a Linux server at the office to your home computer, which also runs Linux, across a VPN. Both computers run OpenSSH. Which utility would you use to make sure these files are copied securely?
- SCP
- SFTP
- FTP
- TFTP
- HTTP
A: SCP
If right: Objective 1.7
If wrong: Objective 1.7

Q: What protocol is used to transfer mail between a Sendmail server and a Microsoft Exchange server?
- SMTP
- SNMP
- IMAP4
- POP3
- TFTP
A: SMTP
If right: Objective 1.7
If wrong: Objective 1.7

Q: Which of the following utilities could you use to log on to a UNIX host?
- NTP
- ARP
- PING
- Telnet
- SNMP
A: Telnet
If right: Objective 1.7
If wrong: Objective 1.7

Q: Routers use IGMP to:
- Identify nodes belonging to a multicast group
- Communicate with other routers about the best path between nodes
- Reserve bandwidth for priority transmissions, ensuring high QoS
- Filter out potentially harmful packets
- Predict the expected round-trip time of a packet over a WAN
A: Identify nodes belonging to a multicast group
If right: Objective 1.7
If wrong: Objective 1.7

Q: Which of the following functions does SIP perform on a VoIP network? (Choose all that apply.)
- Determines the locations of endpoints
- Provides call waiting and caller ID services
- Prioritizes calls for any single endpoint in a queue
- Establishes sessions between endpoints
- Encrypts VoIP signals before they are transmitted over the network
A: Determines the locations of endpoints; Establishes sessions between endpoints
If right: Objective 1.7
If wrong: Objective 1.7

Q: Which protocol converts hardware addresses to IP addresses?
- ICMP
- IP
- ARP
- TCP
- IGMP
A: ARP
If right: Objective 1.7
If wrong: Objective 1.7

Q: UDP is __________________
- Connection-oriented
- Connectionless
A: Connectionless
If right: Objective 1.7
If wrong: Objective 1.7

Q: Which protocol would you use when a remote communication session is required with some other system on the network?
- SMTP
- X.23
- FTP
- telnet
- SMS
A: telnet
If right: Objective 1.7
If wrong: Objective 1.7

Q: Which TCP/IP protocol is a terminal emulation protocol and allows a user on a remote computer to access resources on another computer?
- SMTP
- FTP
- telnet
- ARP
A: telnet
If right: Objective 1.7
If wrong: Objective 1.7

Q: Which of the following is the reliable TCP/IP transport layer protocol?
- IP
- UDP
- TCP
- ARP
A: TCP
If right: Objective 1.7
If wrong: Objective 1.7

Q: TCP is __________________
- Connection-oriented
- Connectionless
A: Connection-oriented
If right: Objective 1.7
If wrong: Objective 1.7

Q: Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding DHCP servers?
- DHCP server software will never make a mistake
- Reduces time needed for IP address planning
- Reduces error associated with IP assignment
- Enables hardware move without TCP/IP reconfiguration
A: DHCP server software will never make a mistake
If right: Objective 1.7
If wrong: Objective 1.7

Q: Which of the following would you use to log onto a remote computer and use it as if you were physically logged onto that computer.
- POP3
- telnet
- HTTP
- FTP
A: telnet
If right: Objective 1.7
If wrong: Objective 1.7

Q: The protocol used to map an IP address to a MAC address is _________.
- MIM
- MTP
- ARP
- IP
- ICMP
A: ARP
If right: Objective 1.7
If wrong: Objective 1.7

Q: Which of the following protocols is used for sending and then receiving e-mail?
- X.25
- SMTP
- MIME
- POP3
- X.500
A: SMTP
If right: Objective 1.7
If wrong: Objective 1.7

Q: Which protocol does UNIX use for mail transfer?
- SMTP
- MIME
- POP3
- IMAP
A: SMTP
If right: Objective 1.7
If wrong: Objective 1.7

Q: Which of the following provides a connectionless datagram service and functions at the Network layer?
- UDP
- TCP
- IP
- ARP
- RIP
A: IP
If right: Objective 1.7
If wrong: Objective 1.7

Q: In the domain name www.google.com, ____ is the top-level domain (TLD).
- http
- www
- google
- com
A: com
If right: Objective 1.8
If wrong: Objective 1.8

Q: Which of the following record types is required for every server in a DNS environment?
- AAA
- MX
- SFP
- A
A: A
If right: Objective 1.8
If wrong: Objective 1.8

Q: What is the purpose of an AAAA resource record in your DNS zone file?
- It identifies a host’s IPv4 address.
- It identifies a host’s IPv6 address.
- It identifies a host’s MAC address.
- It identifies a mail server address.
- It indicates an alternate name for the host.
A: It identifies a host’s IPv6 address.
If right: Objective 1.8
If wrong: Objective 1.8

Q: Which DNS record type will contain the host’s IPv4 address?
- CNAME
- AAAA
- A
- PTR
- MX
A: A
If right: Objective 1.8
If wrong: Objective 1.8

Q: Which character starts a comment line is a HOSTS file?
- *
- “
- $
- #
- %
A: #
If right: Objective 1.8
If wrong: Objective 1.8

Q: Which DNS record type will contain pointer to a canonical name?
- CNAME
- AAAA
- A
- PTR
- MX
A: PTR
If right: Objective 1.8
If wrong: Objective 1.8

Q: Which DNS record type will contain a mail server address?
- CNAME
- AAAA
- A
- PTR
- MX
A: MX
If right: Objective 1.8
If wrong: Objective 1.8

Q: Which DNS record type will contain the host’s IPv6 address?
- CNAME
- AAAA
- A
- PTR
- MX
A: AAAA
If right: Objective 1.8
If wrong: Objective 1.8

Q: Ports ranging from 49152 through 65535; open for use without restriction are called ___________.
- Well-known prots
- Dyanmic ports
- Registered ports
- Unrestricted ports
A: Dyanmic ports
If right: Objective 1.8
If wrong: Objective 1.8

Q: Ports ranging from 1024 to 49151; accessible to network users and processes that do not have special administrative privileges are called ___________.
- Well-known prots
- Dyanmic ports
- Registered ports
- Non-Special ports
A: Registered ports
If right: Objective 1.8
If wrong: Objective 1.8

Q: Ports ranging from 0 to 1023; assigned to processes that only the operating system or an administrator of the system can access. are called ___________.
- Well-known prots
- Dyanmic ports
- Registered ports
- Administrative ports
A: Well-known prots
If right: Objective 1.8
If wrong: Objective 1.8

Q: The database of Internet IP addresses and their associated names is called the _________.
- DNS
- hosts files
- namespace
- nameserver
A: namespace
If right: Objective 1.8
If wrong: Objective 1.8

Q: A host on the Internet that needs to look up domain name information is called a __________.
- client
- resolver
- nameserver
- DNS server
A: resolver
If right: Objective 1.8
If wrong: Objective 1.8

Q: __________ is a hierarchical way of associating domain names with IP addresses
- A namespace
- Resolution
- DNS
d.DHCP
A: DNS
d.DHCP
If right: Objective 1.8
If wrong: Objective 1.8

Q: The local host name plus its domain name is called the ____________
A: FQDN / Fully qualified domain name / Fully Qualified Domain Name
If right: Objective 1.8
If wrong: Objective 1.8

Q: An administrator should take the time to troubleshoot all network problems correctly by asking specific questions designed to identify the problem ____.
- intensity
- background
- scope
- focus
A: scope
If right: Objective 1.9
If wrong: Objective 1.9

Q: ____ are often considered first-level support.
- Help desk coordinators
- Help desk analysts
- Administrators
- Network specialists
A: Help desk analysts
If right: Objective 1.9
If wrong: Objective 1.9

Q: ____ are often considered third-level support.
- Help desk coordinators
- Help desk analysts
- Administrators
- Technical specialists
A: Help desk coordinators
If right: Objective 1.9
If wrong: Objective 1.9

Q: ____ is one of the most important aspects to consider when looking at how a problem solution might affect users and network functionality.
- Cost
- Scope
- Scalability
- Security
A: Scope
If right: Objective 1.9
If wrong: Objective 1.9

Q: A ____ is a document (preferably online) that lists every service and software package supported within an organization, plus the names of first- and second-level support contacts for those services or software packages.
- call tracking list
- help desk program list
- supported services list
- change management list
A: supported services list
If right: Objective 1.9
If wrong: Objective 1.9

Q: A help desk is typically staffed with ____________________ - people proficient in workstation and network troubleshooting.
A: help desk analysts
If right: Objective 1.9
If wrong: Objective 1.9

Q: For documenting problems, some organizations use a software program known as a(n) ____________________ (also informally known as help desk software).
A: call tracking system
If right: Objective 1.9
If wrong: Objective 1.9

Q: You are helping a user who cannot connect to the Internet from her wireless workstation on your company's LAN. After determining that she is the only user having this problem, and that user error is not the problem's cause, what is the next thing you check?
- Her workstation's wireless connection configuration
- The cabling between her department's switch and the LAN backbone
- Her workgroup's access point
- Her segment's router interface
A: Her workstation's wireless connection configuration
If right: Objective 1.9
If wrong: Objective 1.9

Q: You are working at the help desk and take a call from a user who cannot log on to the network. After verifying that this user is the only person affected, you ask for his username and password and try replicating the problem. When you can successfully log onto the network with his user name and password from your help desk workstation, which of the following causes can you rule out?
- User error
- Faulty cabling between the user's workstation and the wall jack
- Improper protocol configuration on his workstation
- None of the above
A: None of the above
If right: Objective 1.9
If wrong: Objective 1.9

Q: As a help desk analyst, or first-level support technician, which of the following calls are you most likely to escalate to second-level support personnel?
- A user from the Accounting Department complains that she can't log onto the company's file server.
- A user from the Research Department complains that for the last five hours he has not been able to send or receive e-mail from his smartphone.
- A manager in the Sales Department complains that none of her 112 sales people across the country can connect to the company's VPN.
- A manager in the Human Resources Department complains that all the document templates he saved to the file server appear to be missing.
A: A manager in the Sales Department complains that none of her 112 sales people across the country can connect to the company's VPN.
If right: Objective 1.9
If wrong: Objective 1.9

Q: To help you identify the area affected by a problem, which of the following questions might provide the answers you need?
- When did the problem first occur?
- How frequently does the problem occur?
- How many users have similar symptoms?
- Does the problem occur at the same time every day?
A: How many users have similar symptoms?
If right: Objective 1.9
If wrong: Objective 1.9

Q: You have recently resolved a problem in which a user could not print to a particular shared printer by upgrading her workstation's client software. Which of the following might be an unintended consequence of your solution?
- The user complains that word-processing files on her hard disk take longer to open.
- The user is no longer able to log on to the network.
- The shared printer no longer allows users to print double-sided documents.
- The shared printer no longer responds to form-feed commands from the print server.
A: The user is no longer able to log on to the network.
If right: Objective 1.9
If wrong: Objective 1.9

Q: You are troubleshooting a problem that you suspect is caused by an Internet gateway failure. Assuming your organization relies on only one Internet gateway, which of the following symptoms would lead you to focus on that gateway as the source of the problem?
- All users on a network are unable to retrieve e-mail.
- Workstations on one segment are experiencing slow response when using collaboration software on the LAN.
- Some users on a segment are receiving errors when they attempt to print to any printer.
- Some workstations on a segment cannot run the same application from the fileserver.
A: All users on a network are unable to retrieve e-mail.
If right: Objective 1.9
If wrong: Objective 1.9

Q: Which of the following is an example of a network change that could cause only one group of workstations out of the dozen workgroups in your organization to lose connectivity to a local file server?
- The organization changes its main Internet connection from one carrier to another.
- The configuration on a switch in the telecommunications closet is upgraded.
- The organization upgrades its backbone to 1-Gigabit Ethernet.
- A new backup device is installed and attached to the main file server.
A: The configuration on a switch in the telecommunications closet is upgraded.
If right: Objective 1.9
If wrong: Objective 1.9

Q: A user reports a network connectivity problem. Which of the following steps should the technician perform FIRST?
- Determine a probable cause
- Implement the solution of the cause
- Test the theory of the cause
- Identify the problem
A: Identify the problem
If right: Objective 1.9
If wrong: Objective 1.9

Q: You are a networking technician in a radiology clinic, where physicians use the network to transmit and store patients’ diagnostic results. Shortly after a new wing, which contains X-ray and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) machines, is added to the building, computers in that area begin having intermittent problems saving data to the file server. After you have gathered information, identified the symptoms, questioned users, and determined what has changed, what is your next step in troubleshooting this problem?
- Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem.
- Escalate the problem.
- Document findings, actions, and outcomes.
- Establish a theory of probable cause.
- Determine the next steps to resolve the problem.
A: Establish a theory of probable cause.
If right: Objective 1.9
If wrong: Objective 1.9

Q: A user complains that he can’t connect to a server.   How would you start to troubleshoot the problem? (Choose Three)
- Re-install the Operating System
- Try to ping the server
- Ask a user on the same segment to try to connect
- Replace the NIC card
- Replace the cable
- Ask a user on another segment to try to connect
A: Try to ping the server; Ask a user on the same segment to try to connect; Ask a user on another segment to try to connect
If right: Objective 1.9
If wrong: Objective 1.9