Course: DOL Grant Introduction to Chemistry

Q: Water, H<sub>2</sub>O, is an example of a(n) ________.
- chemical
- solid
- wave
- electric charge
- element
A: chemical

Q: In this list, which substance can be classified as a chemical?
- salt
- sleep
- cold
- heat
- temperature
A: salt

Q: One example of a chemical used in toothpaste is ________.
- chlorine
- sulfur
- carbon dioxide
- calcium carbonate
- sugar
A: calcium carbonate

Q: Which of the following is not a chemical?
- salt
- water
- light
- carbon dioxide
- sugar
A: light

Q: Sodium fluorophosphate is a chemical used in toothpaste to ________.
- make the paste white
- disinfect the toothbrush
- keep the paste from spoiling
- remove plaque
- strengthen tooth enamel
A: strengthen tooth enamel

Q: When a part of the body is injured, substances called ________ are released.
- aspirins
- pain relievers
- nitrogen oxides
- chlorofluorocarbons
- prostaglandins
A: prostaglandins

Q: The production of smog from NO gas requires ________.
- nitrogen
- chlorine
- water
- oxygen
- CFCs
A: oxygen

Q: Titanium dioxide is a chemical used in toothpaste to ________.
- make the paste white
- disinfect the toothbrush
- keep the paste from spoiling
- remove plaque
- strengthen tooth enamel
A: make the paste white

Q: Which of the following is a chemical?
- sugar
- heat
- light
- noise
- a wave
A: sugar

Q: You notice that there is more traffic between 8 and 9 in the morning. This would be a(n) ________.
- observation
- hypothesis
- experiment
- theory
- All of these
A: observation

Q: There is more traffic between 8 and 9 in the morning because most people start work at 9. This would be a(n) ________.
- observation
- hypothesis
- experiment
- theory
- all of these
A: hypothesis

Q: One way to enhance your learning in chemistry is to ________.
- study a little every day
- form a study group
- go to office hours
- be an active learner
- All of these
A: All of these

Q: In order to enhance your learning in chemistry, you should not ________.
- study a little every day
- form a study group
- go to office hours
- be an active learner
- wait until the night before the exam to study
A: wait until the night before the exam to study

Q: In the number 12.345, the 4 is in the ________ place.
- tens
- ones
- tenths
- hundredths
- thousandths
A: hundredths

Q: In the number 12.345, the 1 is in the ________ place.
- tens
- ones
- tenths
- hundredths
- thousandths
A: tens

Q: In the number 12.345, the 3 is in the ________ place.
- tens
- ones
- tenths
- hundredths
- thousandths
A: tenths

Q: The product of (-4) × (-5) is ________.
- -20
- +20
- -1
- +1
- 0
A: +20

Q: For the equation 4x + 2 = 10, x equals ________.
- 8
- 12
- 3
- 2
- -2
A: 2

Q: For the equation -10 - (-4) = ________.
- 6
- -6
- 14
- -14
- 4
A: -6

Q: 12 is what percent of 36?
- 3%
- 30%
- 33%
- 330%
- 12%
A: 33%

Q: Write 540 000 in scientific notation.
- 0.54 × 10<sup>6</sup>
- 54 × 10<sup>8</sup>
- 5.4 × 10<sup>-5</sup>
- 5.4 × 10<sup>5</sup>
- 5.4
A: 5.4 × 10<sup>5</sup>

Q: Write 0.000 000 33 in scientific notation.
- 3.3 × 10<sup>7</sup>
- 3.3 × 10<sup>-7</sup>
- 3.3 × 10<sup>-8</sup>
- 3.3 × 10<sup>8</sup>
- 3.3
A: 3.3 × 10<sup>-7</sup>

Q: The measurement 0.000 004 3 m, expressed correctly using scientific notation, is ________.
- 4.3 × 10<sup>-7</sup> m
- 4.3 × 10<sup>-6</sup> m
- 4.3 × 10<sup>6</sup> m
- 0.43 × 10<sup>-5</sup> m
- 4.3 m
A: 4.3 × 10<sup>-6</sup> m

Q: A substance that consists of one type of matter and always has the same composition and properties is called a ________.
A: chemical

Q: Any material used in or produced by a chemical reaction is a ________.
A: chemical

Q: An abrasive used in toothpaste is ________.
A: calcium carbonate

Q: The substances released when tissues are injured are ________.
A: prostaglandins

Q: Substances which prevent spoilage are called ________.
A: antioxidants

Q: The chemical used to make cans and foil is ________.
A: aluminum

Q: The first step in the scientific method is to________.
A: make observations

Q: <i>Express each of the following numbers using scientific notation.<br/><br/><br/></i>351 000 000 000
Feedback: 3.51 × 10<sup>11</sup>

Q: <i>Express each of the following numbers using scientific notation.<br/><br/><br/></i>0.000 860
Feedback: 8.60 × 10<sup>-4</sup>

Q: <i>Express each of the following numbers using scientific notation.<br/><br/><br/></i>5 207 000
Feedback: 5.207 × 10<sup>6</sup>

Q: <i>Express each of the following numbers using scientific notation.<br/><br/><br/></i>0.000 000 050
Feedback: 5.0 × 10<sup>-8</sup>

Q: Titanium dioxide in toothpaste is used as a detergent.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: Calcium carbonate is used to sweeten toothpaste.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: Paracelsus was a Greek philosopher.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: The first step in the scientific method is to draw a conclusion.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: Working with a group of students can help you learn chemistry.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: It is a good idea to wait until the night before an exam to start to study.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: In the number 123.45, the digit 5 is in the hundreds place.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: If a negative number is divided by another negative number, the answer will be a positive number.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: The amount of space occupied by a substance is its ________.
- mass
- density
- weight
- length
- volume
A: volume

Q: Which of the following is the basic unit of volume in the metric system?
- liter
- kilogram
- meter
- centimeter
- gram
A: liter

Q: Which of the following is a measurement of mass in the metric system?
- milliliter
- centimeter
- kilogram
- Celsius
- meter
A: kilogram

Q: A value of 25 °C is a measurement of ________.
- length
- volume
- temperature
- mass
- density
A: temperature

Q: A value of 36 mL is a measure of ________.
- density
- mass
- temperature
- volume
- length
A: volume

Q: A value of 345 mm is a measure of ________.
- density
- mass
- temperature
- volume
- length
A: length

Q: The measurement of the gravitational pull on an object is its ________.
- volume
- weight
- mass
- length
- size
A: weight

Q: Which of the following measurements has three significant figures?
- 0.005 m
- 510 m
- 0.510 m
- 0.051 m
- 5100 m
A: 0.510 m

Q: Which of the following numbers contains the designated correct number of significant figures?
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f4g1q9g1.gif"/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f4g1q9g2.gif"/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f4g1q9g3.gif"/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f4g1q9g4.gif"/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f4g1q9g5.gif"/>
A: <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f4g1q9g3.gif"/>

Q: The number of significant figures in the measurement of 45.030 mm is ________.
- none
- three
- four
- five
- six
A: five

Q: How many significant figures are in the number 0.00208?
- six
- two
- three
- four
- five
A: three

Q: Which of the following examples illustrates a number that is correctly rounded to three significant figures?
- 4.05438 g to 4.054 g
- 0.03954 g to 0.040 g
- 103.692 g to 103.7 g
- 109 526 g to 109 500 g
- 20.0332 g to 20.0 g
A: 20.0332 g to 20.0 g

Q: A calculator answer of 423.6059 must be rounded off to three significant figures. What answer is reported?
- 423
- 424
- 1.7420
- 423.6
- 423.7
A: 424

Q: Which of the answers for the following conversions contains the correct number of significant figures?
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f4g1q14g1.gif"/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f4g1q14g2.gif"/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f4g1q14g3.gif"/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f4g1q14g4.gif"/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f4g1q14g5.gif"/>
A: <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f4g1q14g3.gif"/>

Q: <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f4g1q15g1.gif"/>
- 0.22 mL
- 0.223 mL
- 57 mL
- 14 mL
- 14.3 mL
A: 0.22 mL

Q: When 2610 + 11.7 + 0.22 are added, the answer to the correct number of decimal places is ________.
- 2621.92
- 2621.9
- 2621
- 2620
- 2600
A: 2620

Q: What is the answer, with the correct number of decimal places, for this problem?<br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f4g1q17g1.gif"/>4.392 g + 102.40 g + 2.51 g = <br/>
- 109.302 g
- 109 g
- 109.3 g
- 109.30 g
- 110 g
A: 109.30 g

Q: The correct answer for the addition of 7.5 g + 2.26 g + 1.311 g + 2 g is ________.
- 13.071 g
- 13 g
- 13.0 g
- 10 g
- 13.1 g
A: 13 g

Q: In which of the following is the metric unit paired with its correct abbreviation?
- microgram / mg
- milliliter / mL
- centimeter / km
- kilogram / cg
- gram / gm
A: milliliter / mL

Q: Which of the following is the largest unit?
- millimeter
- micrometer
- meter
- decimeter
- kilometer
A: kilometer

Q: What is the metric relationship between grams and micrograms?
- 1 g = 100 <img align="middle" height="17" width="9" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u956.gif"/>g
- 1 g = 1 000 000 <img align="middle" height="17" width="9" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u956.gif"/>g
- 1 g = 0.000 001 <img align="middle" height="17" width="9" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u956.gif"/>g
- 1 g = 1000 <img align="middle" height="17" width="9" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u956.gif"/>g
- 1 g = 0.001 <img align="middle" height="17" width="9" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u956.gif"/>g
A: 1 g = 1 000 000 <img align="middle" height="17" width="9" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u956.gif"/>g

Q: Which of the following is the smallest unit?
- gram
- milligram
- kilogram
- decigram
- microgram
A: microgram

Q: The cubic centimeter (cm<sup>3</sup> or cc) has the same volume as a ________.
- cubic inch
- cubic liter
- milliliter
- centimeter
- cubic decimeter
A: milliliter

Q: What is the conversion factor for the relationship between millimeters and centimeters?
- 1 mm/1 cm
- 10 mm/1 cm
- 1 cm/1 mm
- 100 mm/1 cm
- 10 cm/1 mm
A: 10 mm/1 cm

Q: Which of the following conversion factors is a measured number?
- 10 cm/dm
- 12 in/ft
- 16 oz/lb
- 25 miles/gallon
- 12 eggs/dozen
A: 25 miles/gallon

Q: A conversion factor set up correctly to convert 15 inches to centimeters is ________.
- 100 cm/1 m
- 1 inch/2.54 cm
- 1 cm/10 mm
- 2.54 cm/1 inch
- 10 cm/1 inch
A: 2.54 cm/1 inch

Q: 9.31 g is the same mass as ________.
- 931 <img align="middle" height="17" width="9" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u956.gif"/>g
- 931 kg
- 93.1 cg
- 9310 mg
- 0.0931 dg
A: 9310 mg

Q: According to the United States Food and Drug Administration, the recommended daily requirement of protein is 44 g. This is ________ of protein.
- 1248.5 oz
- 320 000 oz
- 1.6 oz
- 0.0605 oz
- 150 000 oz
A: 1.6 oz

Q: 1.00 pint of milk has a volume of how many milliliters?
- 473 mL
- 530. mL
- 1000 mL
- 1890 mL
- 106 mL
A: 473 mL

Q: Which of the following setups would convert centimeters to feet?
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f4g1q30g1.gif"/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f4g1q30g2.gif"/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f4g1q30g3.gif"/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f4g1q30g4.gif"/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f4g1q30g5.gif"/>
A: <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f4g1q30g3.gif"/>

Q: How many pounds are in 3.5 kg?
- 7.7 lb
- 1.59 lb
- 0.629 lb
- 1.6 lb
- 7.70 lb
A: 7.7 lb

Q: How many liters of soft drink are there in 5.25 qt?
- 4950 L
- 55.7 L
- 4.95 L
- 5.57 L
- 5.0 L
A: 4.95 L

Q: 5.21 cm is the same length as ________.
- 0.0521 m
- 52.1 dm
- 5.21 mm
- 0.00521 km
- 5210 m
A: 0.0521 m

Q: How many centimeters are there in 57.0 in.?
- 22 cm
- 0.0445 cm
- 145 cm
- 22.4 cm
- 140 cm
A: 145 cm

Q: What is 6.5 m converted to inches?
- 1700 in
- 1651 in
- 39 in
- 260 in
- 255.9 in
A: 260 in

Q: How many kilograms are in 30.4 lb?
- 13.8 kg
- 14 kg
- 67 kg
- 66.88 kg
- 66.9 kg
A: 13.8 kg

Q: A dose of aspirin of 5.0 mg per kilogram of body weight has been prescribed to reduce the fever of an infant weighing 8.5 pounds. The number of milligrams of aspirin that should be administered is ________.
- 19 mg
- 53 mg
- 1.6 mg
- 5.0 mg
- 0.59 mg
A: 19 mg

Q: A doctor's order is 0.125 g of ampicillin. The liquid suspension on hand contains 250 mg/5.0 mL. How many milliliters of the suspension are required?
- 0.0025 mL
- 3.0 mL
- 2.5 mL
- 6.3 mL
- 0.0063 mL
A: 2.5 mL

Q: Which of the following measurements are not equivalent?
- 25 mg = 0.025 g
- 183 L = 0.183 kL
- 150 ms = 0.150 s
- 84 cm = 8.4 mm
- 24 dL = 2.4 L
A: 84 cm = 8.4 mm

Q: Which one of the following substances will float in gasoline, which has a density of 0.74 g/mL? The density of each substance is shown in parentheses.
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f4g1q40g1.gif"/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f4g1q40g2.gif"/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f4g1q40g3.gif"/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f4g1q40g4.gif"/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f4g1q40g5.gif"/>
A: <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f4g1q40g2.gif"/>

Q: What is the mass of 2.00 L of an intravenous glucose solution with a density of 1.15 g/mL?
- 0.0230 kg
- 2.30 kg
- 1.15 kg
- 0.0150 kg
- 0.575 kg
A: 2.30 kg

Q: Mercury has a specific gravity of 13.6. How many milliliters of mercury have a mass of 0.35 kg?
- 0.0257 mL
- 0.026 mL
- 25.7 mL
- 26 mL
- 4760 mL
A: 26 mL

Q: What is the density of a substance with a mass of 45.00 g and a volume of 26.4 mL?
- 1.70 g/mL
- 1.7 g/mL
- 0.59 g/mL
- 0.587 g/mL
- 45.0 g/mL
A: 1.70 g/mL

Q: What is the mass of 53 mL of ethanol, which has a density of 0.79 g/mL?
- 67.1 g
- 41.9 g
- 42 g
- 67 g
- 53 g
A: 42 g

Q: A liquid has a volume of 34.6 mL and a mass of 46.0 g. What is the density of the liquid?
- 1.00 g/mL
- 1.33 g/mL
- 0.752 g/mL
- 1330 g/mL
- 0.663 g/mL
A: 1.33 g/mL

Q: The density of a solution is 1.18 g/mL. Its specific gravity is ________.
- 11.8
- 0.118
- 0.847
- 1.18
- 1.2
A: 1.18

Q: Diamond has a density of 3.52 g/mL. What is the volume in cubic centimeters of a diamond with a mass of 15.1 g?
- 4.3 cm<sup>3</sup>
- 4.29 cm<sup>3</sup>
- 0.233 cm<sup>3</sup>
- 53 cm<sup>3</sup>
- 53.2 cm<sup>3</sup>
A: 4.29 cm<sup>3</sup>

Q: The ratio of the mass of a substance to its volume is its ________.
- specific gravity
- density
- buoyancy
- weight
- conversion factor
A: density

Q: A nugget of gold with a mass of 521 g is added to 50.0 mL of water. The water level rises to a volume of 77.0 mL. What is the density of the gold?
- 10.4 g/mL
- 6.77 g/mL
- 1.00 g/mL
- 0.0518 g/mL
- 19.3 g/mL
A: 19.3 g/mL

Q: A 50.0 mL urine sample has a mass of 50.7 g. The specific gravity of the urine is ________.
- 1.014 g/mL
- 0.986 g/L
- 1.01
- 0.986
- 50.7
A: 1.01

Q: <i>Round off each of the following to three significant figures.<br/><br/><br/></i>504.85
A: 505

Q: <i>Round off each of the following to three significant figures.<br/><br/><br/></i>8.3158
A: 8.32

Q: <i>Round off each of the following to three significant figures.<br/><br/><br/></i>25 225
A: 25 200

Q: <i>Round off each of the following to three significant figures.<br/><br/><br/></i>6.3477 × 10<sup>4</sup>
Feedback: 6.35 × 10<sup>4</sup>

Q: <i>Round off each of the following to three significant figures.<br/><br/><br/></i>399870
Feedback: 4.00 × 10<sup>5</sup>

Q: <i>Round off each of the following to three significant figures.<br/><br/><br/></i>58.5422
A: 58.5

Q: <i>Round off each of the following to three significant figures.<br/><br/><br/></i>0.003 4088
A: 0.00341

Q: <i>State the number of significant figures in each of the following measurements.<br/><br/><br/></i>0.705 m
A: 3

Q: <i>State the number of significant figures in each of the following measurements.<br/><br/><br/></i>680 000 km
A: 2

Q: <i>State the number of significant figures in each of the following measurements.<br/><br/><br/></i>0.008090 cm
A: 4

Q: <i>State the number of significant figures in each of the following measurements.<br/><br/><br/></i>28.050 km
A: 5

Q: <i>State the number of significant figures in each of the following measurements.<br/><br/><br/></i>0.0005 L
A: 1

Q: <i>State the number of significant figures in each of the following measurements.<br/><br/><br/></i>75.00 m
A: 4

Q: <i>State the number of significant figures in each of the following measurements.<br/><br/><br/></i>2.043 × 10<sup>4</sup> mm
A: 4

Q: <i>State the number of significant figures in each of the following measurements.<br/><br/><br/></i>6.1 × 10<sup>-5</sup> mL
A: 2

Q: <i>State the number of significant figures in each of the following measurements.<br/><br/><br/></i>9.00 × 10<sup>6</sup> g
A: 3

Q: <i>State the number of significant figures in each of the following measurements.<br/><br/><br/></i>If there are 14 books on the shelf, 14 is a(n) ________ number.
A: exact

Q: The basic unit of mass in the metric system is the pound.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: The liter is a unit of volume in the metric system.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: The number 0.0500 has four significant figures.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: The number 650 000 has two significant figures.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: When the measured number 0.0090 is multiplied by the measured number 87.10, the answer has two significant figures.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: When the measured number 675 is added to the measured number 87.10, the answer should be rounded to the ones place.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: A <img align="middle" height="17" width="9" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u956.gif"/>g is larger than a mg.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: There are 1000 <img align="middle" height="17" width="9" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u956.gif"/>g in a mg.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: A cubic centimeter is a unit of length.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: 1 kg equivalent to 1000 mg.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: 1 mL is equivalent to 1000 L.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: The density of water is 1 kg/mL.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: Specific gravity has no units.
- True
- False
A: True

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Q: Which of the following is an element?
- tin
- water
- salt
- sugar
- iced tea
A: tin

Q: Helium is a(n) ________.
- compound
- heterogeneous mixture
- element
- homogeneous mixture
- electron
A: element

Q: Coins in a piggy bank are an example of a(n) ________.
- compound
- heterogeneous mixture
- element
- homogeneous mixture
- None of these
A: heterogeneous mixture

Q: Gold in a ring is a(n) ________.
- compound
- heterogeneous mixture
- element
- homogeneous mixture
- None of these
A: element

Q: Which of the following is not an element?
- tin
- water
- gold
- silver
- carbon
A: water

Q: Which of the following is a homogeneous mixture?
- noodle soup
- water
- sugar
- tea
- carbon
A: tea

Q: Which of the following is a heterogeneous mixture?
- noodle soup
- water
- sugar
- tea
- carbon
A: noodle soup

Q: Which of the following is not a characteristic of the solid state?
- has a definite shape
- has a definite volume
- particles are close together
- particles are moving very fast
- particles are in fixed positions
A: particles are moving very fast

Q: Which of the following is an example of a physical change?
- grinding coffee beans
- baking a cake
- converting water to hydrogen and oxygen
- digesting a cheeseburger
- burning coal
A: grinding coffee beans

Q: Which of the following would not be a physical change?
- freezing water to make ice cubes
- tearing a piece of aluminum foil
- boiling water for soup
- burning gasoline in a lawnmower
- melting gold to make jewelry
A: burning gasoline in a lawnmower

Q: Which of the following is a chemical change?
- cutting a rope
- bending a steel rod
- making a snowman
- burning sugar
- melting gold
A: burning sugar

Q: Which of the following is a physical change?
- baking a cake
- solid dry ice changing to a gas
- fermenting grapes to produce wine
- digesting a meal
- a tomato ripening
A: solid dry ice changing to a gas

Q: Which of the following is a chemical change?
- burning natural gas
- melting ice
- hammering gold into foil
- cutting a tomato
- cutting paper
A: burning natural gas

Q: Which of the following is a physical change?
- iron rusts
- ice melts
- sugar caramelizes
- food digests
- natural gas burns
A: ice melts

Q: Which of the following is a property of a solid?
- It takes the shape of the container.
- It fills the volume of the container.
- The particles move at a rapid rate.
- The interactions between its particles are very weak.
- The particles have fixed positions and are very close together.
A: The particles have fixed positions and are very close together.

Q: In a gas, the distance between the particles is ________.
- very close relative to the size of the molecules
- close relative to the size of the molecules
- fixed relative to the size of the molecules
- small relative to the size of the molecules
- very large relative to the size of the molecules
A: very large relative to the size of the molecules

Q: Which of the following is a physical property of both liquids and gases?
- has its own shape
- has a definite volume
- has strong interactions between its particles
- has randomly arranged particles
- has large spaces between molecules
A: has randomly arranged particles

Q: Which one of the following properties describes a liquid?
- has its own shape
- particles are close together and move randomly
- particles move very rapidly
- fills the entire volume of the container
- There is essentially no interaction between the particles.
A: particles are close together and move randomly

Q: In which of the following would the particles move most rapidly?
- ice at -20 °C
- water at 20 °C
- steam at 110 °C
- boiling water
- ice at 0 °C
A: steam at 110 °C

Q: If the temperature is 20. °C, what is the corresponding temperature on the Fahrenheit scale?
- -22 °F
- 68 °F
- 43 °F
- 239 °F
- 94 °F
A: 68 °F

Q: If the temperature is -55 °F, what is the corresponding temperature on the Kelvin scale?
- 225 K
- 218 K
- 55 K
- 273 K
- 328 K
A: 225 K

Q: A patient has a temperature of 38.5 °C. What is the temperature in degrees Fahrenheit?
- 70.5 °F
- 311 °F
- 126.9 °F
- 101.3 °F
- 11.7 °F
A: 101.3 °F

Q: The temperature of liquid nitrogen is -196 °C. What is the corresponding reading on the Kelvin scale?
- 77 K
- -127 K
- -91 K
- 48 K
- 146 K
A: 77 K

Q: On a hot day, the thermometer read 95 °F. What is the temperature in degrees Celsius?
- 77 °C
- 113 °C
- 35 °C
- 63 °C
- 178 °C
A: 35 °C

Q: A temperature of 41 °F is the same as ________.
- 5 °C
- 310 °C
- -9 °C
- 16 °C
- 42 °C
A: 5 °C

Q: Absolute zero is ________.
- the freezing point of water using the Celsius scale
- the boiling point of liquid nitrogen
- the temperature on the Kelvin scale corresponding to 32 °F
- the coldest temperature possible
- the freezing point of liquid nitrogen
A: the coldest temperature possible

Q: An example of kinetic energy is ________.
- a coiled spring
- running water
- a tree
- natural gas
- food
A: running water

Q: The energy associated with the motion of particles in a substance is called ________.
- temperature
- electrical energy
- heat
- chemical energy
- potential energy
A: heat

Q: Which of the following is an example of potential energy?
- chewing food
- water stored in a reservoir
- burning wood
- a fan blade turning
- riding an exercise bike
A: water stored in a reservoir

Q: The phrase "ability to do work" is a definition of ________.
- specific heat
- energy
- calorie
- heating
- cooling
A: energy

Q: The energy stored in molecules is ________.
- specific heat
- kinetic energy
- potential energy
- work
- a calorie
A: potential energy

Q: The energy of motion is referred to as ________.
- work
- freezing
- specific heat
- potential energy
- kinetic energy
A: kinetic energy

Q: Climate change is believed to result from all of the following except ________.
- burning of fossil fuels
- increasing levels of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
- deforestation
- movement of the earth closer to the sun
- carbon dioxide trapping the heat produced by the sun
A: movement of the earth closer to the sun

Q: 650. J is the same amount of energy as ________.
- 155 cal
- 2720 cal
- 650. cal
- 1550 cal
- 2.72 cal
A: 155 cal

Q: 3.25 kcal is the same amount of energy as ________.
- 3.25 J
- 0.777 J
- 777 J
- 13600 J
- 13.6 J
A: 13600 J

Q: A potato contains 20 g of carbohydrate. If carbohydrate has a caloric value of 4 kcal/g, how many kcal are obtained from the carbohydrate in the potato?
- 5 kcal
- 20 kcal
- 40 kcal
- 60 kcal
- 80 kcal
A: 80 kcal

Q: One cup of kidney beans contains 15 g of protein, 1 g of fat, and 42 g of carbohydrate. How many kilocalories, to two significant figures, does this sample contain? (The caloric values are: 4 kcal/g for carbohydrate, 9 kcal/g for fat, and 4 kcal/g for protein.)
- 60. kcal
- 88 kcal
- 230 kcal
- 240 kcal
- 520 kcal
A: 240 kcal

Q: A cheeseburger from a fast food restaurant contains 19 g of fat, 20 g of carbohydrate, and 28 g of protein. How many kcal of energy does the cheeseburger contain? (The caloric values are: 4 kcal/g for carbohydrate, 9 kcal/g for fat, and 4 kcal/g for protein.) Give the answer to 2 significant figures.
- 70. kcal
- 360 kcal
- 17 kcal
- 630 kcal
- 280 kcal
A: 360 kcal

Q: A serving of fish contains 50 g protein and 4 g of fat. If protein has a caloric value of 4 kcal/g and fat has 9 kcal/g, how many kcal are in the serving? Give the answer to 2 significant figures.
- 240 kcal
- 54 kcal
- 470 kcal
- 220 kcal
- 490 kcal
A: 240 kcal

Q: A slice of pizza contains 28 g of carbohydrate, 13 g of protein and fat. If the pizza contains 280 kcal, how many grams of fat are present?(The caloric values are: 4 kcal/g for carbohydrate, 9 kcal/g for fat, and 4 kcal/g for protein. Give the answer to 2 significant figures.)
- 28 g
- 13 g
- 10. g
- 55 g
- 250 g
A: 13 g

Q: The dietary calorie(Cal) is equal to ________.
- 1000 kcal
- 1000 cal
- 100 cal
- 10 cal
- 1 cal
A: 1000 cal

Q: The specific heat of a substance is the amount of heat needed to ________.
- change 1 g of the substance from the solid to the liquid state
- raise the temperature of 1 g of the substance by 1 °C
- change 1 g of the substance from the liquid to the solid state
- convert 1 g of a liquid to gas
- convert 1 g of a solid to a gas
A: raise the temperature of 1 g of the substance by 1 °C

Q: A kilocalorie of heat is required to raise the temperature of ________.
- 1 g of water from 14 °C to 15 °C
- 1 g of water by 10 °C
- 10 g of water by 10 °C
- 100 g of water by 10 °C
- 100 g of water by 100 °C
A: 100 g of water by 10 °C

Q: How many calories are required to raise the temperature of a 35.0 g sample of iron from 25 °C to 35 °C? Iron has a specific heat of 0.108 cal/g °C.
- 38 cal
- 1.1 cal
- 3.8 cal
- 93 cal
- 130 cal
A: 38 cal

Q: How many calories are required to raise the temperature of a 150. g sample of gold from 25 °C to 175 °C? The specific heat of gold is 0.0308 cal/g °C.
- 4.62 cal
- 116 cal
- 22500 cal
- 693 cal
- 130. cal
A: 693 cal

Q: How many calories are required to increase the temperature of 13 g of ethanol from 11 °C to 23 °C? The specific heat of ethanol is 0.59 cal/g °C.
- 83 cal
- 0.63 cal
- 92 cal
- 0.54 cal
- 170 cal
A: 92 cal

Q: The specific heat of copper is 0.0920 cal/g °C, and the specific heat of silver is <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f8g1q47g1.gif"/> If 100 cal of heat is added to one g of each metal at 25 °C, what is the expected result?
- The copper will reach a higher temperature.
- The silver will reach a higher temperature.
- The two samples will reach the same temperature.
- The copper will reach a temperature lower than 25 °C.
- The silver will soften.
A: The silver will reach a higher temperature.

Q: Which of the following quantities is not required to calculate the amount of heat energy required to heat water from 25 °C to 55 °C?
- the mass of the water sample
- the initial temperature
- the final temperature
- the specific heat of water
- the heat of vaporization for water
A: the heat of vaporization for water

Q: Raising the temperature of 10.0 g of water from 10.0 °C to 20.0 °C requires 100.0 cal of energy, while raising the temperature of 10.0 g of aluminum from 10.0 °C to 20.0 °C requires 22.0 cal. More calories are required to heat the water because ________.
- water is a liquid and aluminum is a solid at 10.0 °C
- ten grams of water occupies a larger volume than 10.0 g of aluminum
- water has a greater potential energy than aluminum
- water has a larger specific heat than aluminum
- 10.0 °C is closer to the melting point of water than to the melting point of aluminum
A: water has a larger specific heat than aluminum

Q: The number of calories needed to raise the temperature of 32 g of water from <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f8g1q50g1.gif"/> ________.
- 380 cal
- 1.3 cal
- 1300 cal
- 1700 cal
- 0.76 cal
A: 1300 cal

Q: The physical state(s) present when a substance is melting is (are) ________.
- solid
- liquid
- gas
- solid + liquid
- liquid + gas
A: solid + liquid

Q: If the heat of fusion for water is 80. cal/g, how many calories are needed to melt 45.0 g of ice at 0 °C?
- 3.6 cal
- 3.6 × 10<sup>3</sup> cal
- 1.8 cal
- 80. cal
- 0.56 cal
A: 3.6 × 10<sup>3</sup> cal

Q: The formation of a gas resulting from the escape of high-energy particles from the surface of a liquid is known as ________.
- evaporation
- deposition
- boiling
- melting
- sublimation
A: evaporation

Q: When a solid is converted directly to a gas, the change of state is called ________.
- freezing
- melting
- boiling
- condensation
- sublimation
A: sublimation

Q: A burn from steam at 100 °C is expected to be more severe than a burn from boiling water at 100 °C because ________.
- the steam is hotter than the boiling water
- there is more steam than water
- the steam will give off a large amount of heat as it condenses
- you are more likely to come into contact with the steam than with the boiling water
- All of these answers are correct.
A: the steam will give off a large amount of heat as it condenses

Q: The heat of fusion for water is 80. cal/g. How many calories of heat are released when 20.0 g of water at <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f8g1q56g1.gif"/> is frozen to ice?
- 620 cal
- 1600 cal
- 2000 cal
- 2200 cal
- 0 cal
A: 1600 cal

Q: The heat of fusion for water is 80. cal/g. How many calories of heat are needed to melt a 35 g ice cube that has a temperature of 0 °C?
- 2300 cal
- 1600 cal
- 2800 cal
- 540 cal
- 0 cal
A: 2800 cal

Q: The heat of vaporization for water is 540 cal/g. How many kilocalories are needed to change 22 g of liquid water to steam at <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f8g1q58g1.gif"/>
- 540 kcal
- 12 kcal
- 12000 kcal
- 25 kcal
- 1.8 kcal
A: 12 kcal

Q: If the heat of vaporization for water is 540 cal/g, how many kilocalories are released when 5.00 g of steam is converted to liquid at <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f8g1q59g1.gif"/>
- 540 kcal
- 5.0 kcal
- 110 kcal
- 2.7 kcal
- 5.4 kcal
A: 2.7 kcal

Q: Which of the following does not involve a change of state?
- melting ice
- freezing water
- vaporization of alcohol
- sublimation of dry ice
- pouring water into a vacuum-insulated bottle
A: pouring water into a vacuum-insulated bottle

Q: A heating curve illustrates ________.
- what a substance looks like as it is heated
- what happens to the particles of a substance as it is heated
- what happens to the heat applied as the temperature is increased
- the changes in the temperature and physical state of a substance as it is heated
- the chemical changes that occur as the substance is heated
A: the changes in the temperature and physical state of a substance as it is heated

Q: On a heating curve a plateau corresponds to ________.
- a change in temperature of a liquid
- a change in temperature of a solid
- a change in temperature of a gas
- a change of state
- the solid being broken into smaller pieces
A: a change of state

Q: Which of the following does not represent a step on the heating curve of water?
- The temperature of steam cannot exceed 100 °C.
- The temperature of ice remains at 0 °C as it melts.
- The temperature of liquid water increases linearly as it is heated.
- The temperature of liquid water remains at 100 °C as it boils.
- Both liquid water and ice are present at 0 °C.
A: The temperature of steam cannot exceed 100 °C.

Q: Air is an example of a ________ mixture.
A: homogeneous

Q: Liquid water changing to ice is an example of a ________ change.
A: physical

Q: Iron rusting is an example of a ________ change.
A: chemical

Q: The ________ state of matter has a constant shape and volume.
A: solid

Q: A temperature of 20°C is equivalent to ________ K.
A: 293 K

Q: A temperature of 50. °F is equivalent to ________°C.
Feedback: 10 °C

Q: A car driving on the freeway has ________ energy.
A: kinetic

Q: A bungee jumper just before she leaps, has ________ energy.
A: potential

Q: A 12-g sample of cooking oil, which is a fat, contains ________ kcal.
A: 108 kcal

Q: A food sample contains 6 g of carbohydrate and 4 g of protein. How many kcal from carbohydrate and protein are in the sample?
A: 40 kcal

Q: The specific heat of water (in J/g °C ) is ________.
Feedback: 4.184 J/g °C

Q: The change of state from solid to gas is termed ________.
A: sublimation

Q: The heat of fusion is the amount of heat necessary to change one gram of a substance from the solid to the ________ state at its melting point.
A: liquid

Q: The amount of heat necessary for one gram of a substance to change from the solid state to the liquid state at its melting point is the ________.
A: heat of fusion

Q: When a liquid boils, the process by which the molecules leave its surface is called ________.
A: evaporation

Q: <i>Bromine <i>(Br</i><sub><i>2</i></sub>) has a freezing point of -7 °C, and a boiling point of 60 °C. <br/>Indicate the state present or the change of state occurring at each temperature.<br/><br/><br/></i>30 °C
A: liquid

Q: <i>Bromine <i>(Br</i><sub><i>2</i></sub>) has a freezing point of -7 °C, and a boiling point of 60 °C. <br/>Indicate the state present or the change of state occurring at each temperature.<br/><br/><br/></i>60 °C
Feedback: boiling or condensation

Q: <i>Bromine <i>(Br</i><sub><i>2</i></sub>) has a freezing point of -7 °C, and a boiling point of 60 °C. <br/>Indicate the state present or the change of state occurring at each temperature.<br/><br/><br/></i>-7 °C
A: melting or freezing

Q: <i>Bromine <i>(Br</i><sub><i>2</i></sub>) has a freezing point of -7 °C, and a boiling point of 60 °C. <br/>Indicate the state present or the change of state occurring at each temperature.<br/><br/><br/></i>-15 °C
A: solid

Q: <i>Bromine <i>(Br</i><sub><i>2</i></sub>) has a freezing point of -7 °C, and a boiling point of 60 °C. <br/>Indicate the state present or the change of state occurring at each temperature.<br/><br/><br/></i>70 °C
A: gas

Q: Air is a heterogeneous mixture.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: Black coffee is a homogeneous mixture.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: A compound only contains one type of atom.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: A liquid has its own volume and shape.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: Iron rusting is a chemical change.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Ice melting is a chemical change.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: Water vapor is a gas.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: An object with a temperature of 20. °C is hotter than another object with a temperature of 20. °F.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: To calculate the Kelvin temperature, subtract 273 from the Celsius temperature.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: Kinetic energy is the energy of motion.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: The degree Celsius is a unit of energy.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: Carbohydrates and proteins have the same caloric value per gram.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: One gram of fat has less energy that one gram of protein.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: The specific heat has units of kcal.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: The heat of fusion is greater than the heat of vaporization.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: As heat is removed from a solid, its temperature decreases.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: When a liquid is boiling, its temperature does not change.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: As a solid melts, its temperature does not change.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Steam at 100 °C contains the same amount of heat as liquid water at 100 °C.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: The temperature at which water melts and freezes is the same.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Water freezes at 100 °C.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: The heat of fusion of water is larger than the heat of vaporization.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: Condensation occurs when a liquid is converted to a solid.
- True
- False
A: False

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Q: The primary substances of which all other things are composed are ________.
- molecules
- compounds
- elements
- electrons
- protons
A: elements

Q: Au is the symbol for ________.
- gold
- silver
- argon
- aluminum
- sodium
A: gold

Q: <i>Select the correct symbol for the element named.<br/><br/><br/></i>aluminum
- Al
- Am
- Au
- Sn
- Ag
A: Al

Q: <i>Select the correct symbol for the element named.<br/><br/><br/></i>iron
- Ir
- Fs
- Fe
- In
- FE
A: Fe

Q: <i>Select the correct symbol for the element named.<br/><br/><br/></i>sodium
- So
- Na
- No
- Sm
- Au
A: Na

Q: <i>Select the correct symbol for the element named.<br/><br/><br/></i>mercury
- Mr
- Na
- Au
- Hg
- Ag
A: Hg

Q: <i>Select the correct symbol for the element named.<br/><br/><br/></i>potassium
- P
- Po
- Pt
- K
- Ko
A: K

Q: <i>Select the correct symbol for the element named.<br/><br/><br/></i>silver
- S
- Si
- Ag
- Au
- AG
A: Ag

Q: <i>Select the correct symbol for the element named.<br/><br/><br/></i>gold
- Go
- Hg
- Ag
- Au
- AU
A: Au

Q: Ca is the symbol for
- calcium.
- carbon.
- cobalt.
- copper.
- cadmium.
A: calcium.

Q: What elements are in hydroxyapatite, Ca<sub>5</sub>(PO<sub>4</sub>)<sub>3</sub>OH, a major compound in human bones and teeth?
- carbon, potassium, oxygen, hydrogen
- calcium, phosphorous, oxygen, hydrogen
- carbon, phosphorous, oxygen, helium
- calcium, phosphorous, oxygen, helium
- carbon, potassium, oxygen, helium
A: calcium, phosphorous, oxygen, hydrogen

Q: Which of the following is a characteristic of the modern periodic table?
- A group is a horizontal row on the periodic table.
- A period is a column on the periodic table.
- The elements in each group have similar chemical properties.
- The B groups contain the representative elements.
- The A groups contain the transition elements.
A: The elements in each group have similar chemical properties.

Q: Which of the following properties is not a characteristic of the Group 1A (1) elements (alkali metals)?
- They are shiny.
- They are good conductors of heat.
- They react vigorously with water.
- Most of them are liquids at room temperature.
- They are good conductors of electricity.
A: Most of them are liquids at room temperature.

Q: The Group 8A (18) elements ________.
- are unreactive and are rarely found in combination with other elements
- are good conductors of electricity
- melt at high temperatures
- are liquids at room temperature
- react vigorously with water
A: are unreactive and are rarely found in combination with other elements

Q: Which of the following elements is a metal?
- nitrogen
- fluorine
- argon
- strontium
- phosphorus
A: strontium

Q: Which of the following elements is a nonmetal?
- nitrogen
- sodium
- iron
- silver
- calcium
A: nitrogen

Q: Which of the following elements is a metalloid?
- nitrogen
- lithium
- iron
- gold
- silicon
A: silicon

Q: Which of the following is a characteristic of nonmetals?
- shiny
- malleable
- good conductors of heat
- low melting points
- good conductors of electricity
A: low melting points

Q: Which of the following elements is a noble gas?
- oxygen
- chlorine
- bromine
- argon
- nitrogen
A: argon

Q: The elements lithium, sodium, and potassium ________.
- are isotopes of each other
- are in the same period of elements
- have the same number of neutrons
- are in the same group
- have the same mass number
A: are in the same group

Q: The elements sodium, magnesium, and silicon ________.
- are isotopes of each other
- are in the same period of elements
- have the same number of neutrons
- are in the same group
- have the same mass number
A: are in the same period of elements

Q: Which element would have physical and chemical properties similar to chlorine?
- Ar
- Br
- S
- O
- P
A: Br

Q: What is the symbol of the element in Group 4A (14) and Period 2?
- Be
- Mg
- Ca
- C
- Si
A: C

Q: The element in this list with chemical properties similar to magnesium is ________.
- sodium
- boron
- carbon
- strontium
- chlorine
A: strontium

Q: Identify the noble gas in the following list.
- helium
- nitrogen
- oxygen
- gold
- chlorine
A: helium

Q: Semiconductors are located in the periodic table on (or in) the ________.
- left side of the table
- right side of the table
- line dividing metals from nonmetals in the table
- first period of the table
- last period of the table
A: line dividing metals from nonmetals in the table

Q: Identify the metalloid in the following list.
- sulfur
- fluorine
- silver
- copper
- germanium
A: germanium

Q: The smallest particle of an element that retains the characteristics of the element is a(n) ________.
- electron
- neutron
- proton
- atom
- nucleus
A: atom

Q: According to the atomic theory, ________.
- all atoms are different
- atoms are neither created nor destroyed during a chemical reaction
- atoms of the same element combine to form compounds
- all matter is made up of tiny particles called electrons
- a compound can contain different numbers of atoms as long as it has the same kinds of atoms
A: atoms are neither created nor destroyed during a chemical reaction

Q: Which of the following descriptions of a subatomic particle is correct?
- A proton has a positive charge and a mass of approximately 1 amu.
- An electron has a negative charge and a mass of approximately 1 amu.
- A neutron has no charge and its mass is negligible.
- A proton has a positive charge and a negligible mass.
- A neutron has a positive charge and a mass of approximately 1 amu.
A: A proton has a positive charge and a mass of approximately 1 amu.

Q: In an atom, the nucleus contains ________.
- an equal number of protons and electrons
- all the protons and neutrons
- all the protons and electrons
- only neutrons
- only protons
A: all the protons and neutrons

Q: The atomic number of an atom is equal to the number of ________.
- nuclei
- neutrons
- neutrons plus protons
- electrons plus protons
- protons
A: protons

Q: The number of neutrons in an atom is equal to ________.
- the atomic number
- the mass number
- the mass number + the atomic number
- the mass number - the atomic number
- the number of protons
A: the mass number - the atomic number

Q: The mass number of an atom can be calculated from ________.
- the number of electrons
- the number of protons plus neutrons
- the number of protons
- the number of electrons plus protons
- the number of neutrons
A: the number of protons plus neutrons

Q: What is the mass number of an atom of potassium that has 20 neutrons?
- 15
- 19
- 35
- 39
- 59
A: 39

Q: Consider a neutral atom with 30 protons and 34 neutrons. The atomic number of the element is ________.
- 30
- 32
- 34
- 64
- 94
A: 30

Q: Consider a neutral atom with 30 protons and 34 neutrons. The mass number for this atom is ________.
- 30
- 32
- 34
- 64
- 94
A: 64

Q: Consider a neutral atom with 30 protons and 34 neutrons. The number of electrons in this atom is ________.
- 30
- 32
- 34
- 64
- 94
A: 30

Q: How many protons are in an isotope of sodium with a mass number of 25?
- 11
- 14
- 15
- 25
- 32
A: 11

Q: Consider an isotope of sodium with a mass number of 25. The number of neutrons in this isotope of sodium is ________.
- 11
- 14
- 16
- 25
- 32
A: 14

Q: Which of the following gives the correct numbers of protons, neutrons, and electrons in a neutral atom of <img align="middle" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f12g1q41g1.gif"/>Sn?
- 118 protons, 50 neutrons, 118 electrons
- 118 protons, 118 neutrons, 50 electrons
- 50 protons, 68 neutrons, 50 electrons
- 68 protons, 68 neutrons, 50 electrons
- 50 protons, 50 neutrons, 50 electrons
A: 50 protons, 68 neutrons, 50 electrons

Q: Isotopes are atoms of the same element that have ________.
- different atomic numbers
- the same atomic numbers but different numbers of protons
- the same atomic numbers but different numbers of electrons
- the same atomic number but different numbers of neutrons
- the same atomic mass but different numbers of protons
A: the same atomic number but different numbers of neutrons

Q: The correct symbol for the isotope of potassium with 22 neutrons is ________.
- <img align="middle" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f12g1q43g1.gif"/>K
- <img align="middle" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f12g1q43g2.gif"/>K
- <img align="middle" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f12g1q43g3.gif"/>P
- <img align="middle" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f12g1q43g4.gif"/>P
- <img align="middle" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f12g1q43g5.gif"/>K
A: <img align="middle" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f12g1q43g1.gif"/>K

Q: The atomic mass of an element is equal to ________.
- its mass number
- its atomic number
- one-twelfth of the mass of a carbon-12 atom
- the mass of an "average atom"
- the mass of the heaviest isotope
A: the mass of an "average atom"

Q: A sample of chlorine has two naturally occurring isotopes. The isotope Cl-35 makes up 75.8% of the sample, and the isotope Cl-37 makes up 24.3% of the sample. Which of the following statements is true?
- The atomic mass of chlorine will be less than 35.
- The atomic mass of chlorine will be more than 37.
- You cannot tell what the atomic mass will be.
- The atomic mass will be between 35 and 37.
- The atomic mass will be 24.3.
A: The atomic mass will be between 35 and 37.

Q: Which of the following is not true for the atoms<sup> 13</sup>N, <sup>14</sup>N, and <sup>15</sup>N?
- They all have the same mass number.
- They are isotopes.
- They all have the same atomic number.
- They all have 7 protons.
- They all have 7 electrons.
A: They all have the same mass number.

Q: The electron arrangement of any particular atom shows ________.
- the number of isotopes possible
- a description of the shape of each electron energy level
- the number of electrons in each energy level
- a diagram of an atomic nucleus
- the maximum number of electrons each energy level can hold
A: the number of electrons in each energy level

Q: The maximum number of electrons that may occupy the third electron energy level is ________.
- 2
- 8
- 10
- 18
- 32
A: 18

Q: What is the element with the electron arrangement 2,8,7?
- Be
- Cl
- F
- S
- Ar
A: Cl

Q: What is the electron arrangement for aluminum?
- 2,8,3
- 2,8,5
- 2,8,7
- 2,8,8
- 2,8,10
A: 2,8,3

Q: What is the electron arrangement for potassium (atomic number 19)?
- 2,8,9
- 2,8,7,2
- 2,10,7
- 2,8,8,1
- 2,8,6,3
A: 2,8,8,1

Q: What element has the electron arrangement 2,8,4?
- carbon
- oxygen
- sulfur
- iron
- silicon
A: silicon

Q: The number of electrons in the outer energy level of a neutral atom of boron (atomic number 5) is ________.
- 2
- 3
- 5
- 8
- 10
A: 3

Q: What is the correct electron arrangement for the lithium atom?
- 3
- 3,1
- 1,2
- 2,1
- 2,5
A: 2,1

Q: The number of electron energy levels in a magnesium atom is ________.
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
A: 3

Q: The number of valence electrons found in an atom of a Group A element is equal to ________.
- its atomic number
- its mass number
- its group number
- eight
- eight minus the group number
A: its group number

Q: Valence electrons are electrons located ________.
- in the outermost energy level of an atom
- in the nucleus of an atom
- in the innermost energy level of an atom
- throughout the atom
- in the first three shells of an atom
A: in the outermost energy level of an atom

Q: In an electron-dot symbol of an element, the dots are used to represent ________.
- all of the electrons in the atom
- the valence electrons
- the electron arrangement
- only the electrons that will participate in bond formation
- the electrons that the element will gain when it forms a compound
A: the valence electrons

Q: How many valence electrons are in the electron-dot symbols for the elements in group 3A (13)?
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 6
A: 3

Q: The number of dots in the electron dot symbol of nitrogen is ________.
- one
- two
- three
- four
- five
A: five

Q: The number of dots in the electron dot symbol of carbon is ________.
- one
- two
- three
- four
- five
A: four

Q: Which of the following is the correct electron-dot symbol for carbon?
- <br/><img align="middle" height="25" width="27" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f12g1q62g1.jpg"/>
- <br/><img align="middle" height="24" width="27" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f12g1q62g2.jpg"/>
- <br/><img align="middle" height="25" width="27" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f12g1q62g3.jpg"/>
- <br/><img align="middle" height="25" width="26" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f12g1q62g4.jpg"/>
- <br/><img align="middle" height="25" width="27" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f12g1q62g5.jpg"/>
A: <br/><img align="middle" height="25" width="27" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f12g1q62g3.jpg"/>

Q: The atomic size of atoms ________.
- increases going across a period
- decreases going across a period
- decreases going down within a group
- does not change going across a period
- None of these
A: decreases going across a period

Q: The atomic size of atoms ________.
- increases going across a period
- decreases going down within a group
- increases going down within a group
- does not change going down within a group
- None of these
A: increases going down within a group

Q: The ionization energy of atoms ________.
- decreases going across a period
- decreases going down within a group
- increases going down within a group
- does not change going down within a group
- None of these
A: decreases going down within a group

Q: Ionization energy is ________.
- the energy an ion acquires from an electron
- the energy needed to remove the least tightly bound electron
- highest for metals in Group 1A (1)
- higher for potassium than for lithium
- None of these
A: the energy needed to remove the least tightly bound electron

Q: The metallic character of elements ________.
- increases going across a period
- decreases going down within a group
- increases going down within a group
- does not change going down within a group
- None of these
A: increases going down within a group

Q: The metallic character of elements ________.
- decreases going across a period
- decreases going down within a group
- increases going across a period
- does not change going down within a group
- None of these
A: decreases going across a period

Q: <i>Write the symbol from the element name.<br/><br/><br/></i>The symbol for sodium is ________.
A: Na

Q: <i>Write the symbol from the element name.<br/><br/><br/></i>The symbol for lead is ________.
A: Pb

Q: <i>Write the symbol from the element name.<br/><br/><br/></i>The symbol for mercury is ________.
A: Hg

Q: <i>Write the symbol from the element name.<br/><br/><br/></i>The symbol for copper is ________.
A: Cu

Q: <i>Write the symbol from the element name.<br/><br/><br/></i>The symbol for sulfur is ________.
A: S

Q: <i>Write the symbol from the element name.<br/><br/><br/></i>The symbol for silver is ________.
A: Ag

Q: <i>Write the electron arrangement for the atom shown.<br/><br/><br/></i>Sodium
A: 2,8,1

Q: <i>Write the electron arrangement for the atom shown.<br/><br/><br/></i>Chlorine
A: 2,8,7

Q: <i>Write the electron arrangement for the atom shown.<br/><br/><br/></i>Argon
A: 2,8,8

Q: <i>Write the electron arrangement for the atom shown.<br/><br/><br/></i>Sulfur
A: 2,8,6

Q: <i>Write the electron arrangement for the atom shown.<br/><br/><br/></i>Magnesium
A: 2,8,2

Q: <i>Write the electron arrangement for the atom shown.<br/><br/><br/></i>Phosphorus
A: 2,8,5

Q: The symbol for gold is Au.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: The symbol for potassium is P.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: The symbol for mercury is Mg.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: Chromium is a metal.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Radon is a metal.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: Mercury is a metal.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Sulfur is a nonmetal.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Iodine is a metal.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: The proton has a positive charge.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: The proton is 2000 times the mass of the neutron.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: The atomic number is equal to the number of protons.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: The mass number is equal to the number of electrons.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: The atomic number of sodium is 23.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: A sodium atom with a mass number of 23 has 23 neutrons.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: A lead atom with a mass number of 208 has 126 neutrons.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: A calcium atom two electrons in the fourth energy level.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: An argon atom 18 electrons in the third energy level.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: Ionization energy increases going down a group.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: Metallic character increases going down a group.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Atomic size decreases going from left to right within a period.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Sulfur has 16 valence electrons.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: Potassium has one valence electron.
- True
- False
A: True

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Q: What is the nuclear symbol for a radioactive isotope of copper with a mass number of 60?
- <img align="middle" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f16g1q1g1.gif"/>Cu
- <img align="middle" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f16g1q1g2.gif"/>Cu
- <sup>29</sup>Cu
- <img align="middle" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f16g1q1g3.gif"/>Cu
- <img align="middle" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f16g1q1g4.gif"/>Cu
A: <img align="middle" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f16g1q1g1.gif"/>Cu

Q: <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f16g1q2g1.gif"/>
- proton
- neutron
- gamma ray
- beta particle
- alpha particle
A: alpha particle

Q: <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f16g1q3g1.gif"/>
- proton
- neutron
- gamma ray
- beta particle
- alpha particle
A: beta particle

Q: Which of the following types of radiation has the highest energy?
- <i><img align="middle" height="17" width="8" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u945.gif"/></i>-particles
- <i><img align="middle" height="17" width="7" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u946.gif"/></i>-particles
- <i><img align="middle" height="17" width="8" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u947.gif"/></i>-rays
- visible light
- All of these have the same energy.
A: <i><img align="middle" height="17" width="8" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u947.gif"/></i>-rays

Q: The damaging effects of radiation on the body are a result of ________.
- the formation of unstable ions
- the formation of radioactive atoms in the body
- transmutation reactions in the body
- extensive damage to nerve cells
- the production of radioactive sodium ions in the body
A: the formation of unstable ions

Q: Which of the following is suitable as a minimum shielding for beta particles?
- air
- 1 sheet of paper
- gloves
- 1 m of concrete
- 1 cm of lead
A: gloves

Q: <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f16g1q7g1.gif"/>
- 85 protons and 38 neutrons
- 47 protons and 38 neutrons
- 38 protons and 47 neutrons
- 38 protons and 85 neutrons
- 85 protons and 47 neutrons
A: 38 protons and 47 neutrons

Q: Which is not a way to minimize your exposure to radiation?
- wearing a lead apron
- keeping a good distance
- standing behind a thick concrete wall
- wearing lead-lined gloves
- staying a longer time
A: staying a longer time

Q: A positron is a particle emitted from the nucleus that has the same mass as a(n) ________.
- electron but has a positive charge
- neutron but has a positive charge
- alpha particle
- beta particle
- proton emitted from the nucleus
A: electron but has a positive charge

Q: The process in which a nucleus spontaneously breaks down by emitting radiation is known as ________.
- transformation
- translation
- fusion
- a chain reaction
- radioactive decay
A: radioactive decay

Q: Gamma rays require the heaviest shielding of all the common types of nuclear radiation because gamma rays have the ________.
- highest energy
- most intense color
- lowest energy
- largest particles
- heaviest particles
A: highest energy

Q: If absorbed internally, alpha particle emitters are the most damaging because alpha particles ________.
- have the largest charge
- have the greatest energy
- have the greatest mass
- consist of high energy electrons
- consist of pure energy
A: have the greatest mass

Q: Radium-226 decays by alpha emission to ________.
- barium-131
- cobalt-60
- carbon-14
- polonium-218
- radon-222
A: radon-222

Q: <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f16g1q14g1.gif"/>
- <img align="middle" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f16g1q14g2.gif"/>Np
- <img align="middle" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f16g1q14g3.gif"/>Pu
- <img align="middle" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f16g1q14g4.gif"/>Th
- <img align="middle" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f16g1q14g5.gif"/>Ra
- <img align="middle" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f16g1q14g6.gif"/>U
A: <img align="middle" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f16g1q14g4.gif"/>Th

Q: <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f16g1q15g1.gif"/>
- <img align="middle" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f16g1q15g2.gif"/>Cs
- <img align="middle" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f16g1q15g3.gif"/>I
- <img align="middle" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f16g1q15g4.gif"/>Xe
- <img align="middle" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f16g1q15g5.gif"/>Ba
- <img align="middle" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f16g1q15g6.gif"/>Xe
A: <img align="middle" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f16g1q15g4.gif"/>Xe

Q: A nuclear equation is balanced when ________.
- the same elements are found on both sides of the equation
- the sum of the mass numbers and the sum of the atomic numbers of the particles and atoms are the same on both sides of the equation
- the same particles and atoms are on both sides of the equation
- different particles and atoms are on both sides of the equation
- the charges of the particles and atoms are the same on both sides of the equation
A: the sum of the mass numbers and the sum of the atomic numbers of the particles and atoms are the same on both sides of the equation

Q: The nuclear reaction shown below is an example of what type of process?<br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f16g1q17g1.gif"/><br/>
- fusion
- fission
- translation
- alpha decay
- beta decay
A: alpha decay

Q: In the nuclear equation of beta decay, ________.
- the new nucleus contains 2 fewer protons
- the new nucleus contains 2 more protons
- the mass number of the new nucleus is 4 less than that of the original nucleus
- the new nucleus contains 1 more proton
- the new nucleus contains 1 less proton
A: the new nucleus contains 1 more proton

Q: Nitrogen-17 undergoes beta decay. What is the isotope produced in the radioactive decay?
- <img align="middle" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f16g1q19g1.gif"/>C
- <img align="middle" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f16g1q19g2.gif"/>B
- <img align="middle" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f16g1q19g3.gif"/>N
- <img align="middle" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f16g1q19g4.gif"/>F
- <img align="middle" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f16g1q19g5.gif"/>O
A: <img align="middle" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f16g1q19g5.gif"/>O

Q: The nuclear reaction <br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f16g1q20g1.gif"/>  <br/><br/>is an example of ________.
- fusion
- fission
- gamma emission
- alpha decay
- beta decay
A: beta decay

Q: What is the radioactive particle released in the following nuclear equation?<br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f16g1q21g1.gif"/><br/>
- alpha particle
- beta particle
- positron
- proton
- neutron
A: beta particle

Q: What is the radioactive particle released in the following nuclear equation?<br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f16g1q22g1.gif"/><br/>
- alpha particle
- beta particle
- gamma ray
- proton
- neutron
A: alpha particle

Q: The nuclear symbol that completes the equation is a(n) ________.<br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f16g1q23g1.gif"/><br/>
- proton
- neutron
- gamma ray
- beta particle
- alpha particle
A: alpha particle

Q: The nuclear symbol that completes the equation is a(n) ________.<br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f16g1q24g1.gif"/><br/>
- proton
- neutron
- positron
- beta particle
- alpha particle
A: positron

Q: The nuclear symbol that completes the equation is a(n) ________.<br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f16g1q25g1.gif"/><br/>
- proton
- neutron
- gamma ray
- beta particle
- alpha particle
A: neutron

Q: What does the ? represent in the bombardment equation of nitrogen-14?<br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f16g1q26g1.gif"/><br/>
- alpha particle
- beta particle
- gamma ray
- proton
- neutron
A: neutron

Q: When aluminum-27 is bombarded with a neutron, a gamma ray is emitted. What radioactive isotope is produced?
- silicon-27
- silicon-28
- aluminum-28
- magnesium-27
- magnesium-28
A: aluminum-28

Q: The unit used to measure the amount of radiation absorbed by a gram of material is called the ________.
- rad
- sievert
- curie
- rem
- Bq
A: rad

Q: The SI unit used to measure the activity of a radioactive sample is called the ________.
- rad
- gray
- sievert
- rem
- Bq
A: Bq

Q: The SI unit used to measure the biological effect of radiation sample is called the ________.
- rad
- curie
- sievert
- rem
- Bq
A: sievert

Q: A person begins to suffer radiation sickness at an exposure level of ________.
- 25 rem
- 5 rem
- 500 rem
- 100 rem
- 600 rem
A: 100 rem

Q: A patient receives 4 × 10<sup>3</sup> mrads of iodine-131, which emits <i><img align="middle" height="17" width="7" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u946.gif"/></i>-particles. If the factor that adjusts for biological damage is 1 for <i><img align="middle" height="17" width="7" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u946.gif"/></i>-particles, how many rems did the patient receive?
- 4
- 0.4
- 0.3
- 2
- 40
A: 4

Q: A patient receives 10 mrads of gamma radiation. If the factor that adjusts for biological damage for for gamma radiation is 1, how many mrems did the patient receive?
- 2 mrem
- 5 mrem
- 10 mrem
- 20 mrem
- 200 mrem
A: 10 mrem

Q: One symptom of mild radiation sickness is ________.
- a lowered white cell count
- a raised white cell count
- a lowered red blood cell count
- a raised red blood cell count
- a white cell count of zero
A: a lowered white cell count

Q: The half-life of a radioisotope is ________.
- one-half of the time it takes for the radioisotope to completely decay to a nonradioactive isotope
- the time it takes for the radioisotope to become an isotope with one-half of the atomic weight of the original radioisotope
- the time it takes for the radioisotope to become an isotope with one-half the atomic number of the original radioisotope
- the time it takes for the radioisotope to lose one-half of its neutrons
- the time it takes for one-half of the sample to decay
A: the time it takes for one-half of the sample to decay

Q: Iodine-123, which is used for diagnostic imaging in the thyroid, has a half-life of 13 h. If 50.0 mg of I-123 were prepared at 8:00 A.M. on Monday, how many mg remain at 10:00 A.M. on the following day?
- 50.0 mg
- 25.0 mg
- 12.5 mg
- 6.25 mg
- 3.13 mg
A: 12.5 mg

Q: A wooden object from a prehistoric site has a carbon-14 activity of 10 cpm compared to 40 cpm for new wood. If carbon-14 has a half-life of 5730 yr, what is the age of the wood?
- 1430 yr
- 5730 yr
- 11 500 yr
- 17 200 yr
- 22 900 yr
A: 11 500 yr

Q: Krypton-79 has a half-life of 35 h. How many half-lives have passed after 105 h?
- 1 half-life
- 2 half-lives
- 3 half-lives
- 4 half-lives
- 5 half-lives
A: 3 half-lives

Q: Iron-59 has a half-life of 44 days. A radioactive sample has an activity of 0.64 mBq. What is the activity of the sample after 88 days?
- 1.28 mBq
- 0.64 mBq
- 0.32 mBq
- 0.16 mBq
- 0080 mBq
A: 0.32 mBq

Q: The half-life of bromine-74 is 25 min. How much of a 4.0 mg sample is still active after 75 min?
- 0.50 mg
- 1.0 mg
- 2.0 mg
- 0.25 mg
- 4.0 mg
A: 0.50 mg

Q: Sodium-24 has a half-life of 15 h. How many hours is three half-lives?
- 60 h
- 45 h
- 30 h
- 15 h
- 7.5 h
A: 45 h

Q: Iodine 131 has a half-life of 8.0 days. An I-131 sample has an initial activity of 32 mCi. What is the activity after 24 days?
- 96 mCi
- 16. mCi
- 8.0 mCi
- 4.0 mCi
- 2.0 mCi
A: 4.0 mCi

Q: A radiation lab orders 64 <img align="middle" height="17" width="9" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u956.gif"/>Ci of P-32. After 42.9 days the activity of the sample is 8.0 <img align="middle" height="17" width="9" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u956.gif"/>Ci. What is the half-life of P-32?
- 7.15 days
- 14.3 days
- 28.6 days
- 42.9 days
- 85.8 days
A: 14.3 days

Q: A sample of I-131 decays from 12 microcuries to 3.0 microcuries in 16 days. What is the half-life of I-131?
- 16 days
- 8.0 days
- 32 days
- 64 days
- 4.0 days
A: 8.0 days

Q: Why is it important that radioisotopes used in diagnostic tests have short half-lives?
- These radioisotopes have a greater activity so they are easier to monitor.
- This minimizes the harmful side effects of the radiation.
- This is necessary so the radioisotopes will have high energy.
- These radioisotopes are less expensive.
- These radioisotopes are more abundant in nature.
A: This minimizes the harmful side effects of the radiation.

Q: An imaging technique in which a computer monitors the degree of absorption of X-ray beams is known as ________.
- positron emission tomography (PET)
- magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
- computed tomography (CT)
- radioactive iodine uptake (RAIU)
- a scan.
A: computed tomography (CT)

Q: An imaging technique that detects the energy absorbed by hydrogen atoms in a magnetic field is known as ________.
- positron emission tomography (PET)
- computed tomography (CT)
- magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
- radioactive tracer study
- supermagnetic tomography (SMT)
A: magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

Q: The dosage of technetium-99m for myocardial imaging is 280 <img align="middle" height="17" width="9" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u956.gif"/>Ci/kg of body weight. How many mCi should be given to a patient weighing 65 kg?
- 0.0043 mCi
- 4.3 mCi
- 18 mCi
- 230 mCi
- 1.8 × 10<sup>4</sup> mCi
A: 18 mCi

Q: A patient receives 3.0 mL of a solution containing technetium-99m for a breast image. If the activity of the technetium-99m is 9.5 mCi/mL, what is the dose received by the patient?
- 3.2 mCi
- 29 mCi
- 320 <img align="middle" height="17" width="9" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u956.gif"/>Ci
- 9.5 mCi
- 28.5 mCi
A: 29 mCi

Q: A sample of cerium-141 for a diagnostic test was dissolved in saline solution to an activity of 4.5 millicuries/mL. If the patient undergoing the test needs a dose of 10 millicuries, how much of the solution should be injected into the patient?
- 45 mL
- .45 mL
- 2.2 mL
- 22 mL
- 4.5 mL
A: 2.2 mL

Q: The most widely used medical isotope in nuclear medicine is ________.
- Tc-99m
- I-131
- P-32
- I-125
- Co-60
A: Tc-99m

Q: The recommended dosage of I-131 for a test is 4.2 <img align="middle" height="17" width="9" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u956.gif"/>Ci per kg of body mass. How many millicuries should be given to a 55 kg patient? (1 mCi = 1000 <img align="middle" height="17" width="9" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u956.gif"/>Ci)?
- 230 mCi
- 0.23 mCi
- 0.076 mCi
- 760 mCi
- 13.8 mCi
A: 0.23 mCi

Q: When an atom of uranium-235 is bombarded with neutrons, it splits into smaller nuclei and produces a great amount of energy. This nuclear process is called ________.
- fission
- fusion
- decomposition
- chain reaction
- ionization
A: fission

Q: In the sun, nuclei of hydrogen combine to form a larger nucleus and release a great amount of energy. The process is known as ________.
- fission
- fusion
- metathesis
- chain reaction
- ionization
A: fusion

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Q: The shielding required for gamma rays is ________.
Feedback: lead or thick concrete

Q: In alpha emission, the atomic number ________.
A: decreases by two

Q: In beta emission, the atomic number ________.
A: increases by one

Q: If a neutron is lost from a nucleus, the atomic number ________.
A: does not change

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Q: The common unit of radioactivity which is used to measure the biological damage is the ________.
A: rem

Q: There are ________ microcuries in one millicurie.
A: 1000

Q: The time needed for a radioactive sample to decay to one-half of its original activity is called the ________.
A: half-life

Q: After two half-lives, the radioactivity of a sample is ________ of its original activity.
A: one-fourth

Q: The radioisotope used as a diagnostic tool to measure thyroid function is ________.
A: I-131

Q: The diagnostic imaging technique that depends on magnetic fields and radio waves, not radioactivity, is called ________.
Feedback: MRI or magnetic resonance imaging

Q: The splitting of a large nucleus into smaller nuclei is called nuclear ________.
A: fission

Q: The combination of H-3 and H-2 to give He-4 and a neutron is called nuclear ________.
A: fusion

Q: Exposure to radiation is unavoidable because some radioactive elements occur naturally.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f18g1q2g1.gif"/>
- True
- False
A: False

Q: X-rays are generated by the nucleus during radioactive decay.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: During alpha emission, the atomic number decreases.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: When a positron is emitted, the atomic number stays the same.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: When beta particles are emitted, the atomic number decreases.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: The production of nitrogen-13 and a neutron from boron-10 by bombardment with a helium-4 nucleus is an example of radioactive decay.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: One symptom of radiation sickness is an increased production of red blood cells.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: One mCi of a radioactive substance emits more radiation than one <img align="middle" height="17" width="9" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u956.gif"/>Ci of the same substance.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Irradiation of food for preservation is usually carried out using gamma irradiation.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: The rem is a unit that measures the biological effect of radiation.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: The amount of radiation measured by 1 Bq is larger than that measured by 1 Ci.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: After two half-lives, the activity of a sample is four times the initial activity.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: If the half-life of hydrogen-3 is 11.8 yr, after two half-lives the radioactivity of a sample will be reduced to one-half of the original amount.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: One type of radiation that is not used for medical procedures is the cosmic ray.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: X-rays are emitted during MRI scans.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: CT scans are based on the adsorption of X-rays.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Nuclear fission as used in nuclear power plants produces radioactive waste with long half-lives.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: In nuclear fusion, a large atom splits into smaller atoms.
- True
- False
A: False

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Q: In ionic compounds, ________ lose their valence electrons to form positively charged ________.
- metals, anions
- nonmetals, cations
- metals, polyatomic ions
- nonmetals, anions
- metals, cations
A: metals, cations

Q: How many electrons will aluminum gain or lose when it forms an ion?
- lose 1
- gain 5
- lose 2
- lose 3
- gain 1
A: lose 3

Q: What is the symbol for the ion with 19 protons and 18 electrons?
- F<sup>+</sup>
- F<sup>-</sup>
- Ar<sup>+</sup>
- K<sup>-</sup>
- K<sup>+</sup>
A: K<sup>+</sup>

Q: To form an ion, a sodium atom ________.
- gains one electron
- gains two electrons
- loses seven electrons
- loses one electron
- loses two electrons
A: loses one electron

Q: An anion always ________.
- has a positive charge
- contains a group of two or more atoms with a positive charge
- contains a metal and a nonmetal
- forms covalent bonds
- has a negative charge
A: has a negative charge

Q: What is the ionic charge of an ion with 13 protons and 10 electrons?
- 1+
- 2+
- 3+
- 2-
- 3-
A: 3+

Q: The number of electrons in an ion with 16 protons and an ionic charge of 2- is ________.
- 16
- 18
- 20
- 22
- 24
A: 18

Q: Elements in group 2A (2) of the periodic table form ions with a charge of ________.
- 1+
- 1-
- 2+
- 3+
- 0
A: 2+

Q: The ion of aluminum is ________.
- Al<sup>+</sup>
- Al<sup>2+</sup>
- Al<sup>3+</sup>
- Al<sup>3-</sup>
- Al<sup>2-</sup>
A: Al<sup>3+</sup>

Q: How many electrons will chlorine gain or lose when it forms an ion?
- lose 1
- gain 1
- lose 7
- gain 2
- lose 3
A: gain 1

Q: When a cation is formed from a representative element ________.
- electrons are gained and the ion is larger
- electrons are gained and the ion is smaller
- electrons are lost and the ion is larger
- electrons are lost and the ion is smaller
- the cation acquires a negative charge
A: electrons are lost and the ion is smaller

Q: An ionic compound ________.
- has a net positive charge
- has a net negative charge
- contains only cations
- contains only anions
- has a net charge of zero
A: has a net charge of zero

Q: The correct formula for a compound formed from the elements Al and O is ________.
- AlO
- Al<sub>2</sub>O
- Al<sub>3</sub>O<sub>2</sub>
- AlO<sub>3</sub>
- Al<sub>2</sub>O<sub>3</sub>
A: Al<sub>2</sub>O<sub>3</sub>

Q: The correct formula for the compound formed from Mg and S is ________.
- MgS
- MgS<sub>2</sub>
- Mg<sub>2</sub>S
- Mg<sub>2</sub>S<sub>2</sub>
- Mg<sub>2</sub>S<sub>3</sub>
A: MgS

Q: Which one of the following compounds contains an ion with a 3+ charge?
- KCl
- Na<sub>2</sub>O
- FeCl<sub>3</sub>
- CuCl
- MgCl<sub>2</sub>
A: FeCl<sub>3</sub>

Q: What is the correct formula for the oxide ion?
- O<sup>2-</sup>
- O
- O<sup>+</sup>
- O<sup>2+</sup>
- O<sup>3+</sup>
A: O<sup>2-</sup>

Q: The compound MgCl<sub>2</sub> is named ________.
- magnesium chlorine
- magnesium dichloride
- magnesium(II) chloride
- magnesium chloride
- dimagnesium chloride
A: magnesium chloride

Q: Which one of the following elements forms two or more ions with different ionic charges?
- K
- F
- Ca
- O
- Fe
A: Fe

Q: What is the correct formula for the iron(II) ion?
- Fe<sup>+</sup>
- Fe<sup>2+</sup>
- Fe<sup>3+</sup>
- Fe<sup>2-</sup>
- Fe<sup>3-</sup>
A: Fe<sup>2+</sup>

Q: The name of the Cu<sup>+</sup> ion is ________.
- copper(II)
- copper(I)
- copper(III)
- copper
- cuprum
A: copper(I)

Q: What is the correct formula for iron(III) sulfide?
- Fe<sub>2</sub>S<sub>2</sub>
- Fe<sub>2</sub>S
- FeS
- FeS<sub>2</sub>
- Fe<sub>2</sub>S<sub>3</sub>
A: Fe<sub>2</sub>S<sub>3</sub>

Q: The name of Al<sub>2</sub>(SO<sub>4</sub>)<sub>3</sub> is ________.
- aluminum(III) sulfate
- dialuminum trisulfate
- dialuminum sulfate
- dialuminum trisulfide
- aluminum sulfate
A: aluminum sulfate

Q: A group of covalently bonded atoms that has an overall electrical charge is called a(n) ________.
- ionic compound
- anion
- polyatomic ion
- cation
- molecule
A: polyatomic ion

Q: Which of the following polyatomic ions has a positive charge?
- hydroxide
- cyanide
- hydrogen carbonate
- ammonium
- nitrate
A: ammonium

Q: Which of the following polyatomic ions has a 3- ionic charge?
- hydroxide
- nitrate
- sulfate
- phosphate
- hydrogen carbonate
A: phosphate

Q: What is the formula of the nitride ion?
- N<sup>3-</sup>
- NO<sub>2</sub><sup><sup>-</sup></sup>
- NO<sub>3</sub><sup>3-</sup>
- NO<sub>3</sub><sup>2-</sup>
- NO<sub>3</sub><sup><sup>-</sup></sup>
A: N<sup>3-</sup>

Q: The name of the HSO<sub>4</sub><sup><sup>-</sup></sup> ion is ________.
- sulfate
- hydrogen sulfate
- sulfite
- hydrogen sulfite
- sulfide
A: hydrogen sulfate

Q: What is the formula of a compound that contains Na<sup>+</sup> and PO<sub>4</sub><sup>3-</sup> ions?
- Na<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub>
- NaPO<sub>4</sub>
- Na<sub>2</sub>PO<sub>3</sub>
- Na<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>3</sub>
- Na<sub>3</sub>P
A: Na<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub>

Q: Fe<sub>2</sub>(SO<sub>4</sub>)<sub>3</sub> is called ________.
- iron sulfate
- iron(II) sulfate
- iron(III) sulfate
- diiron trisulfate
- iron trisulfate
A: iron(III) sulfate

Q: What is the formula for aluminum nitrate?
- Al<sub>2</sub>NO<sub>2</sub>
- AlNO<sub>3</sub>
- Al(NO<sub>2</sub>)<sub>3</sub>
- Al(NO<sub>3</sub>)<sub>3</sub>
- Al<sub>2</sub>(NO<sub>2</sub>)<sub>2</sub>
A: Al(NO<sub>3</sub>)<sub>3</sub>

Q: A(n) ________ is the smallest neutral unit of two or more atoms held together by a covalent bond.
- ionic compound
- nucleus
- molecule
- formula
- unit
A: molecule

Q: In a molecule with covalent bonding, ________.
- oppositely charged ions are held together by strong electrical attractions
- atoms of metals form bonds to atoms of nonmetals
- atoms of different metals form bonds
- atoms are held together by sharing electrons
- atoms of noble gases are held together by attractions between oppositely charged ions
A: atoms are held together by sharing electrons

Q: Which of the following elements does not exist as a diatomic molecule?
- hydrogen
- nitrogen
- chlorine
- oxygen
- carbon
A: carbon

Q: In a covalently bonded molecule, the number of electrons that an atom shares with others is usually equal to the number of electrons ________.
- in the atom
- in its nucleus
- in all the atoms
- in its ion
- needed to give it a noble gas arrangement
A: needed to give it a noble gas arrangement

Q: The correct name of the compound NCl<sub>3</sub> is ________.
- nitrogen chloride
- trinitrogen chloride
- nitrogen(III) chloride
- nickel chloride
- nitrogen trichloride
A: nitrogen trichloride

Q: According to naming rules, the types of compound that use prefixes in their names are ________.
- ionic compounds
- ionic compounds involving transition metals
- polyatomic ions
- molecular compounds
- compounds that contain polyatomic ions
A: molecular compounds

Q: The correct name for the compound N<sub>2</sub>O<sub>3</sub> is ________.
- nitrogen oxide
- nitrogen trioxide
- dinitride trioxide
- dinitrogen oxide
- dinitrogen trioxide
A: dinitrogen trioxide

Q: What is the formula of carbon tetraiodide?
- CI
- CI<sub>4</sub>
- C<sub>4</sub>I
- CI<sub>3</sub>
- C<sub>2</sub>I<sub>4</sub>
A: CI<sub>4</sub>

Q: The ability of an atom to attract the shared electrons in a covalent bond is its ________.
- electronegativity
- bonding ability
- polarity
- ionic character
- nonpolarity
A: electronegativity

Q: Double and triple bonds form because ________.
- the atoms involved have high electronegativities
- single covalent bonds do not give all of the atoms in the molecule eight valence electrons
- one of the atoms in the molecule has more than 8 valence electrons
- the ions involved have charges larger than one
- there is at least one hydrogen atom involved in the bond
A: single covalent bonds do not give all of the atoms in the molecule eight valence electrons

Q: Which of the following substances contains a nonpolar covalent bond?
- H<sub>2</sub>O
- NaCl
- NH<sub>3</sub>
- MgF<sub>2</sub>
- N<sub>2</sub>
A: N<sub>2</sub>

Q: Which of the following compounds contains a polar covalent bond?
- NaF
- HCl
- Br<sub>2</sub>
- MgO
- O<sub>2</sub>
A: HCl

Q: Which of the following compounds contains an ionic bond?
- NH<sub>3</sub>
- H<sub>2</sub>O
- CaO
- H<sub>2</sub>
- CH<sub>4</sub>
A: CaO

Q: Ionic bonding is expected in which of these compounds?
- Cl<sub>2</sub>
- KF
- OF<sub>2</sub>
- HF
- H<sub>2</sub>
A: KF

Q: A polar covalent bond is found in which of these compounds?
- H<sub>2</sub>O
- F<sub>2</sub>
- NaCl
- H<sub>2</sub>
- N<sub>2</sub>
A: H<sub>2</sub>O

Q: The bond in Cl<sub>2</sub> is a(n) ________.
- ionic bond
- nonpolar covalent bond
- metallic bond
- polar ionic bond
- no bond
A: nonpolar covalent bond

Q: The VSEPR theory allows us to determine the ________.
- shape of a molecule
- charge on an ion
- color of a compound
- bond type for a molecule
- formula for a compound
A: shape of a molecule

Q: The shape of the ammonia molecule (NH<sub>3</sub>) is ________.
- linear
- trigonal planar
- trigonal pyramidal
- tetrahedral
- bent
A: trigonal pyramidal

Q: The shape of the water molecule (H<sub>2</sub>O) is ________.
- linear
- tetrahedral
- trigonal pyramidal
- bent
- trigonal planar
A: bent

Q: The shape of the methane molecule (CH<sub>4</sub>) is ________.
- linear
- tetrahedral
- trigonal pyramidal
- bent
- trigonal planar
A: tetrahedral

Q: The carbon tetrachloride molecule, CCl<sub>4</sub>, has the shape of a ________.
- tetrahedron
- square
- cube
- circle
- sphere
A: tetrahedron

Q: The carbon tetrachloride molecule, CCl<sub>4</sub>, is ________.
- a polar molecule with polar bonds
- a nonpolar molecule with polar bonds
- a nonpolar molecule with nonpolar bonds
- a polar molecule with nonpolar bonds
- a polar molecule with ionic bonds
A: a nonpolar molecule with polar bonds

Q: The ammonia molecule (NH<sub>3</sub>) is ________.
- a polar molecule with polar bonds
- a nonpolar molecule with polar bonds
- a nonpolar molecule with nonpolar bonds
- a polar molecule with nonpolar bonds
- a polar molecule with ionic bonds
A: a polar molecule with polar bonds

Q: The main type of attractive forces between molecules of ammonia (NH<sub>3</sub>) are ________.
- ionic bonds
- hydrogen bonds
- polar covalent
- dipole-dipole attractions
- dispersion forces
A: hydrogen bonds

Q: The main type of attractive forces between molecules of carbon tetrabromide (CBr<sub>4</sub>) are ________.
- ionic bonds
- hydrogen bonds
- polar covalent
- dipole-dipole attractions
- dispersion forces
A: dispersion forces

Q: The main type of attractive forces between molecules of hydrogen (H<sub>2</sub>) are ________.
- ionic bonds
- hydrogen bonds
- polar covalent
- dipole-dipole attractions
- dispersion forces
A: dispersion forces

Q: <i>Identify each of the following compounds as covalent or ionic.<br/><br/><br/></i>carbon tetrachloride
A: covalent

Q: <i>Identify each of the following compounds as covalent or ionic.<br/><br/><br/></i>potassium oxide
A: ionic

Q: <i>Identify each of the following compounds as covalent or ionic.<br/><br/><br/></i>carbon dioxide
A: covalent

Q: <i>Identify each of the following compounds as covalent or ionic.<br/><br/><br/></i>dihydrogen sulfide
A: covalent

Q: <i>Identify each of the following compounds as covalent or ionic.<br/><br/><br/></i>sodium fluoride
A: ionic

Q: <i>Identify each of the following compounds as covalent or ionic.<br/><br/><br/></i>nitrogen trichloride
A: covalent

Q: A sulfur atom gains electrons to form an ion with a charge of 2-.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: A potassium atom gains electrons to form an ion with a charge of 1-.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: A positive ion has more protons that electrons.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: For halogens, the group number is the same as the ionic charge.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: When calcium and oxygen combine, the formula of the product is CaO.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: When barium and chlorine combine, the formula of the product is BaCl<sub>3</sub>.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: When Al<sup>3+</sup> and Br<sup>-</sup> combine, the formula of the product is Al<sub>3</sub>Br.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: The name of the compound AlCl<sub>3 </sub>is aluminum trichloride.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: The common ions of iron are Fe<sup>+</sup> and Fe<sup>2+</sup>.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: The name of the compound CuO is copper(II) oxide.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: The name of the compound Fe<sub>2</sub>S<sub>3</sub> is iron(II) sulfide.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: The name of the compound K<sub>3</sub>N is potassium nitride.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: The formula for iron(II) sulfide is FeS.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: The formula for hydroxide is OH<sup>-</sup>.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: When Al<sup>3+</sup> and SO<sub>4</sub><sup>2-</sup> combine, the formula of the product is Al<sub>2<sup>(SO</sup>4</sub>)<sub>3</sub>.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: The name of the compound CuSO<sub>4 </sub>is copper(I) sulfate.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: The formula of the compound chromium(III) oxide is Cr<sub>2</sub>O<sub>3</sub>.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Molecular compounds are formed from ions.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: The formula of the compound boron trifluoride is BF<sub>3</sub>.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: The name of the compound CO<sub>2 </sub>is dicarbon oxide.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: Br<b><sub>2</sub></b> contains a polar covalent bond.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: Chlorine is more electronegative than bromine.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Sodium is more electronegative than chlorine.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: The bond between H and O is polar covalent.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: The bond between Li and F is polar covalent.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: The molecule CO<sub>2</sub> is linear.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: The molecule SCl<sub>2</sub> is linear.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: Methane, (CH<sub>4</sub>), is a polar molecule.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: Ammonia, (NH<sub>3</sub>), is a polar molecule.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: A nonpolar molecule can have polar bonds.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: The strongest attractive forces between molecules of H<sub>2</sub>O are dispersion forces.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: The strongest attractive forces between molecules of Cl<sub>2</sub> are dispersion forces.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: The strongest attractive forces between molecules of NH<sub>3</sub> are hydrogen bonds.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: The strongest attractive forces between molecules of HCl are hydrogen bonds.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: The strongest attractive forces between molecules of HBr are dipole-dipole attractions.
- True
- False
A: True

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Q: One mole of particles of any substance contains how many particles?
- 10<sup>6</sup> particles
- 3 × 10<sup>-10</sup> particles
- 3 × 10<sup>10</sup> particles
- 6.02 × 10<sup>23</sup> particles
- 6.02 × 10<sup>-23</sup> particles
A: 6.02 × 10<sup>23</sup> particles

Q: Avogadro's number is the number of ________.
- particles in 1 mole of a substance
- amu in 1 mole of a substance
- grams in 1 mole of a substance
- moles in 6.02 × 10<sup>23</sup> g of an element
- moles in 6.02 × 10<sup>23</sup> amu of an element
A: particles in 1 mole of a substance

Q: One mole of copper(II) sulfate, CuSO<sub>4</sub>, contains ________ O atoms.
- 4
- 6.02 × 10<sup>23</sup>
- 1.51 × 10<sup>23</sup>
- 2.41 × 10<sup>23</sup>
- 2.41 × 10<sup>24</sup>
A: 2.41 × 10<sup>24</sup>

Q: 0.400 mole of sucrose, C<sub>12</sub>H<sub>22</sub>O<sub>11</sub>, contains ________ C atoms.
- 12
- 6.02 × 10<sup>23</sup>
- 5.02 × 10<sup>22</sup>
- 2.89 × 10<sup>24</sup>
- 4.80
A: 2.89 × 10<sup>24</sup>

Q: One mole of copper(II) sulfate, CuSO<sub>4</sub>, contains ________ moles of O.
- 4
- 6.02 × 10<sup>23</sup>
- 1.51 × 10<sup>23</sup>
- 2.41 × 10<sup>23</sup>
- 2.41 × 10<sup>24</sup>
A: 4

Q: 0.400 mole of sucrose, C<sub>12</sub>H<sub>22</sub>O<sub>11</sub>, contains ________ moles of C.
- 12
- 6.02 × 10<sup>23</sup>
- 5.02 × 10<sup>22</sup>
- 2.89 × 10<sup>24</sup>
- 4.80
A: 4.80

Q: How many moles of carbon atoms are there in 0.500 mole of C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>6</sub>?
- 0.500 mole
- 1.00 mole
- 3.00 moles
- 6.02 × 10<sup>23</sup> moles
- 4.00 moles
A: 1.00 mole

Q: The molar mass of potassium is ________.
- 19.00 g/mole
- 31.00 g/mole
- 6.02 × 10<sup>23</sup> g/mole
- 39.10 g/mole
- 15.02 g/mole
A: 39.10 g/mole

Q: One mole of helium gas weighs ________.
- 1.000 g
- 2.002 g
- 3.003 g
- 4.003 g
- 8.006 g
A: 4.003 g

Q: Calculate the molar mass of potassium chloride, KCl.
- 74.55 g/mole
- 54.55 g/mole
- 6.745 g/mole
- 67.45 g/mole
- 19.00 g/mole
A: 74.55 g/mole

Q: What is the molar mass of copper(II) sulfate, CuSO<sub>4</sub>?
- 16.00 g/mole
- 63.60 g/mole
- 111.6 g/mole
- 159.6 g/mole
- 319.2 g/mole
A: 159.6 g/mole

Q: Calculate the molar mass of magnesium chloride, MgCl<sub>2</sub>.
- 24.31 g/mole
- 95.21 g/mole
- 125.9 g/mole
- 59.76 g/mole
- 70.90 g/mole
A: 95.21 g/mole

Q: What is the molar mass of sodium phosphate, Na<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub>?
- 69.96 g/mole
- 118.0 g/mole
- 163.9 g/mole
- 226.1 g/mole
- 354.0 g/mole
A: 163.9 g/mole

Q: What is the molar mass of sucrose (C<sub>12</sub>H<sub>22</sub>O<sub>11</sub>)?
- 29.02 g/mole
- 50.23 g/mole
- 210.0 g/mole
- 342.3 g/mole
- 182.0 g/mole
A: 342.3 g/mole

Q: One mole of neon atoms has a mass of ________.
- 6.02 × 10<sup>23</sup> g
- 14.01 g
- 10.01 g
- 20.18 g
- 22.99 g
A: 20.18 g

Q: The molar mass of C<sub>3</sub>H<sub>8</sub>O<sub>2</sub> is ________.
- 76.09 g/mole
- 60.09 g/mole
- 29.02 g/mole
- 69.02 g/mole
- 52.01 g/mole
A: 76.09 g/mole

Q: The molar mass of calcium hydroxide, Ca(OH)<sub>2</sub>, is ________.
- 58.09 g/mole
- 57.09 g/mole
- 74.10 g/mole
- 114.2 g/mole
- 54.02 g/mole
A: 74.10 g/mole

Q: What is the molar mass of Mg<sub>3</sub>(PO<sub>4</sub>)<sub>2</sub>, a substance formerly used in medicine as an antacid?
- 71.28 g/mole
- 118.3 g/mole
- 150.3 g/mole
- 214.3 g/mole
- 262.9 g/mole
A: 262.9 g/mole

Q: How many moles of water, H<sub>2</sub>O, are present in 75.0 g H<sub>2</sub>O?
- 4.41 moles
- 4.16 moles
- 75.0 moles
- 7.50 moles
- 1.35 × 10<sup>3</sup> moles
A: 4.16 moles

Q: 0.100 mole of lithiumhas a mass of ________.
- 3.00 g
- 0.300 g
- 6.94 g
- 0.694 g
- 0.700 g
A: 0.694 g

Q: 4.00 moles of sodium have a mass of ________.
- 4.60 g
- 11.0 g
- 23.0 g
- 44.0 g
- 92.0 g
A: 92.0 g

Q: How many moles of K<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub> are in 15.0 g of K<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>?
- 0.172 moles
- 2.61 × 10<sup>3</sup> moles
- 0.111 moles
- 0.0861 moles
- 0.119 moles
A: 0.0861 moles

Q: 3.00 moles of NO<sub>2</sub> have a mass of ________.
- 138 g
- 46.0 g
- 30.0 g
- 90.0 g
- 45.0 g
A: 138 g

Q: How many grams of Fe<sub>2</sub>O<sub>3</sub> are there in 0.500 mole of Fe<sub>2</sub>O<sub>3</sub>?
- 79.9 g
- 35.9 g
- 63.8 g
- 51.9 g
- 160. g
A: 79.9 g

Q: How many grams of glucose (C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub>O<sub>6</sub>) are in 3.55 moles of glucose?
- 180. g
- 640. g
- 103 g
- 426 g
- 50.7 g
A: 640. g

Q: A chemical equation is balanced when ________.
- the total number of molecules is the same in reactants and products
- the total number of ions is the same in reactants and products
- the sum of the coefficients of the reactants is equal to the sum of the coefficients of the products
- the number of atoms of each element is the same in reactants and products
- the charge on each atom is the same in reactants and products
A: the number of atoms of each element is the same in reactants and products

Q: In any balanced chemical equation, the number of each type of atom on both sides of the equation is ________.
- doubled
- the same
- decreased by one
- increased by one
- dependent on the temperature
A: the same

Q: Which of the following gives the balanced equation for this reaction?<br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f24g1q28g1.gif"/><br/>
- KPO<sub>4</sub> + CaNO<sub>3</sub> + KNO<sub>3</sub>
- K<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub> + Ca(NO<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub> <img align="middle" height="17" width="13" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u8594.gif"/> Ca<sub>3</sub>(PO<sub>4</sub>)<sub>2</sub> + 3KNO<sub>3</sub>
- 2 K<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub> + Ca(NO<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub> <img align="middle" height="17" width="13" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u8594.gif"/> Ca<sub>3</sub>(PO<sub>4</sub>)<sub>2</sub> + 6KNO<sub>3</sub>
- 2K<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub> + 3Ca(NO<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub> <img align="middle" height="17" width="13" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u8594.gif"/> Ca<sub>3</sub>(PO<sub>4</sub>)<sub>2</sub> + 6KNO<sub>3</sub>
- K<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub> + Ca(NO<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub> <img align="middle" height="17" width="13" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u8594.gif"/> Ca<sub>3</sub>(PO<sub>4</sub>)<sub>2</sub> + KNO<sub>3</sub>
A: 2K<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub> + 3Ca(NO<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub> <img align="middle" height="17" width="13" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u8594.gif"/> Ca<sub>3</sub>(PO<sub>4</sub>)<sub>2</sub> + 6KNO<sub>3</sub>

Q: Which of the following correctly gives the correct coefficients for the reaction below?<br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f24g1q29g1.gif"/><br/>
- 1, 1, 1, 1
- 1, 2, 1, 4
- 2, 4, 2, 8
- 1, 4, 1, 4
- 2, 4, 2, 4
A: 1, 2, 1, 4

Q: What coefficient is placed in front of O<sub>2</sub> to complete the balancing of the following equation? <br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f24g1q30g1.gif"/><br/>
- 1
- 3
- 5
- 7
- 9
A: 7

Q: What is the coefficient of hydrogen, H<sub>2</sub>, when the following equation is balanced?<br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f24g1q31g1.gif"/><br/>
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
A: 3

Q: <i>Pentane (<i>C</i><sub><i>5</i></sub><i>H</i><sub><i>12</i></sub>) reacts with oxygen (<i>O</i><sub><i>2</i></sub>) to form carbon dioxide (<i>CO</i><sub><i>2</i></sub>) and water (<i>H</i><sub><i>2</i></sub>O) according to the following reaction. Answer the following question(s) about this reaction.</i><br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f24g1q32g1.gif"/><br/><br/><br/>What is the coefficient for oxygen in the balanced equation?
- 2
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 8
A: 8

Q: <i>Pentane (<i>C</i><sub><i>5</i></sub><i>H</i><sub><i>12</i></sub>) reacts with oxygen (<i>O</i><sub><i>2</i></sub>) to form carbon dioxide (<i>CO</i><sub><i>2</i></sub>) and water (<i>H</i><sub><i>2</i></sub>O) according to the following reaction. Answer the following question(s) about this reaction.</i><br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f24g1q33g1.gif"/><br/><br/><br/>What is the coefficient for carbon dioxide in the balanced equation?
- 2
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 8
A: 5

Q: <i>Pentane (<i>C</i><sub><i>5</i></sub><i>H</i><sub><i>12</i></sub>) reacts with oxygen (<i>O</i><sub><i>2</i></sub>) to form carbon dioxide (<i>CO</i><sub><i>2</i></sub>) and water (<i>H</i><sub><i>2</i></sub>O) according to the following reaction. Answer the following question(s) about this reaction.</i><br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f24g1q34g1.gif"/><br/><br/><br/>What is the coefficient for water in the balanced equation?
- 2
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 8
A: 6

Q: In this reaction, what is the coefficient for calcium oxide?<br/><br/> CaO + CO<sub>2</sub> <img align="middle" height="17" width="13" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u8594.gif"/> CaCO<sub>3</sub><br/>
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
A: 1

Q: In this reaction, what is the correct coefficient for sodium chloride?<br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f24g1q36g1.gif"/><br/>
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
A: 2

Q: In the following reaction, what is the correct coefficient for aluminum chloride?<br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f24g1q37g1.gif"/><br/>
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
A: 2

Q: For the following reaction, what is the correct coefficient for the H<sub>2</sub>?<br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f24g1q38g1.gif"/>
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
A: 3

Q: What is the classification for this unbalanced reaction?<br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f24g1q39g1.gif"/>
- combustion
- combination
- decomposition
- single replacement
- double replacement
A: single replacement

Q: In a ________ reaction, two or more elements or compounds form one product.
- decomposition
- single replacement
- combustion
- double replacement
- combination
A: combination

Q: The following reaction is an example of a ________ reaction.<br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f24g1q41g1.gif"/><br/>
- combination
- single replacement
- combustion
- decomposition
- double replacement
A: combustion

Q: The following reaction takes place when an electric current is passed through water. It is an example of a ________ reaction.<br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f24g1q42g1.gif"/><br/>
- combination
- single replacement
- combustion
- decomposition
- double replacement
A: decomposition

Q: What is the classification for this reaction?<br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f24g1q43g1.gif"/><br/>
- decomposition
- combination
- replacement
- double replacement
- combustion
A: combination

Q: The reaction of carbon with oxygen to produce carbon monoxide is an example of which class of reaction?<br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f24g1q44g1.gif"/><br/>
- single replacement
- double replacement
- combination
- catalytic
- endothermic
A: combination

Q: Which of the following is an oxidation-reduction reaction?
- CaCl<sub>2</sub> + Na<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub> <img align="middle" height="17" width="13" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u8594.gif"/> CaSO<sub>4</sub> + 2NaCl
- KOH + HNO<sub>3</sub> <img align="middle" height="17" width="13" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u8594.gif"/> H<sub>2</sub>O + KNO<sub>3</sub>
- N<sub>2</sub> + O<sub>2</sub> <img align="middle" height="17" width="13" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u8594.gif"/> 2NO
- AgNO<sub>3</sub> + NaCl <img align="middle" height="17" width="13" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u8594.gif"/> AgCl + NaNO<sub>3</sub>
- Al<sub>2</sub>(SO<sub>4</sub>) <sub>3</sub> + 6KOH <img align="middle" height="17" width="13" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u8594.gif"/> 2Al(OH)<sub>3</sub> + 3K<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>
A: N<sub>2</sub> + O<sub>2</sub> <img align="middle" height="17" width="13" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u8594.gif"/> 2NO

Q: What is oxidized and what is reduced in the following reaction?<br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f24g1q46g1.gif"/> <br/>
- Al is oxidized and Br<sub>2</sub> is reduced.
- AlBr<sub>3</sub> is reduced and Br<sub>2</sub> is oxidized.
- Al is reduced and Br<sub>2</sub> is oxidized.
- AlBr<sub>3</sub> is reduced and Al is oxidized.
- AlBr<sub>3</sub> is oxidized and Al is reduced.
A: Al is oxidized and Br<sub>2</sub> is reduced.

Q: In an oxidation-reduction reaction, the substance oxidized always ________.
- takes on oxygen atoms
- loses electrons
- gives up hydrogen atoms
- gains electrons
- becomes a charged species
A: loses electrons

Q: In this reaction, what is the substance oxidized?<br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f24g1q48g1.gif"/><br/>
- chlorine
- zinc chloride
- hydrogen
- zinc
- oxygen
A: zinc

Q: In an oxidation-reduction reaction, the substance reduced always ________.
- takes on oxygen atoms
- loses electrons
- gives up hydrogen atoms
- gains electrons
- becomes a charged species
A: gains electrons

Q: Given the following equation, what is the correct form of the conversion factor needed to convert the number of moles of O<sub>2</sub> to the number of moles of Fe<sub>2</sub>O<sub>3</sub> produced?<br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f24g1q50g1.gif"/><br/>
- <img align="middle" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f24g1q50g2.gif"/><br/>
- <img align="middle" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f24g1q50g3.gif"/><br/>
- <img align="middle" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f24g1q50g4.gif"/><br/>
- <img align="middle" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f24g1q50g5.gif"/><br/>
- <img align="middle" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f24g1q50g6.gif"/><br/>
A: <img align="middle" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f24g1q50g6.gif"/><br/>

Q: <i>For the following question(s), consider the following equation. <br/></i><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f24g1q51g1.gif"/><br/><br/><br/>The number of moles of oxygen gas needed to react with 4.0 moles of Mg is ________.
- 1.0 mole
- 2.0 moles
- 3.0 moles
- 4.0 moles
- 6.0 moles
A: 2.0 moles

Q: <i>For the following question(s), consider the following equation. <br/></i><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f24g1q52g1.gif"/><br/><br/><br/>The number of moles of MgO produced when 0.20 mole of O<sub>2</sub> reacts completely is ________.
- 0.10 mole
- 0.20 mole
- 0.40 mole
- 0.60 mole
- 0.80 mole
A: 0.40 mole

Q: <i>For the following question(s), consider the following balanced equation.<br/></i><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f24g1q53g1.gif"/><br/> <br/><br/>What is the correct form of the conversion factor needed to convert the number of moles of H<sub>2</sub>O to the number of moles of NH<sub>3</sub> produced?
- <img align="middle" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f24g1q53g2.gif"/><br/>
- <img align="middle" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f24g1q53g3.gif"/><br/>
- <img align="middle" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f24g1q53g4.gif"/><br/>
- <img align="middle" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f24g1q53g5.gif"/><br/>
- <img align="middle" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f24g1q53g6.gif"/> <br/>
A: <img align="middle" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f24g1q53g2.gif"/><br/>

Q: <i>For the following question(s), consider the following balanced equation.<br/></i><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f24g1q54g1.gif"/><br/> <br/><br/>When 2 moles of Mg<sub>3</sub>N<sub>2</sub> are allowed to react, how many moles of H<sub>2</sub>O also react?
- 1 mole
- 4 moles
- 6 moles
- 8 moles
- 12 moles
A: 12 moles

Q: When 4 moles of aluminum are allowed to react with an excess of chlorine gas, Cl<sub>2</sub>, how many moles of aluminum chloride are produced?<br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f24g1q55g1.gif"/><br/>
- 1 mole
- 2 moles
- 3 moles
- 4 moles
- 5 moles
A: 4 moles

Q: In the reaction of nitrogen gas, N<sub>2</sub>, with hydrogen gas, H<sub>2</sub>, to form ammonia gas, NH<sub>3</sub>, how many moles of hydrogen are needed to react with two moles of nitrogen?<br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f24g1q56g1.gif"/> <br/>
- 2 moles
- 4 moles
- 6 moles
- 8 moles
- 5.710 moles
A: 6 moles

Q: <i>For the following question(s), consider the following equation. <br/></i><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f24g1q57g1.gif"/><br/><br/><br/>How many grams of magnesium are needed to react with 16 g of O<sub>2</sub>?
- 0.50 g
- 1.0 g
- 12 g
- 24 g
- 48 g
A: 24 g

Q: <i>For the following question(s), consider the following equation. <br/></i><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f24g1q58g1.gif"/><br/><br/><br/>How many grams of MgO are produced when 40.0 grams of O<sub>2</sub> react completely with Mg?
- 40.3 g
- 50.4 g
- 60.5 g
- 101 g
- 202 g
A: 101 g

Q: How many grams of hydrogen are needed to produce 1.80 g of water according to this equation?<br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f24g1q59g1.gif"/><br/>
- 0.101 g
- 0.180 g
- 0.201 g
- 2.01 g
- 4.02 g
A: 0.201 g

Q: In the reaction of silver nitrate with sodium chloride, how many grams of silver chloride will be produced from 100. g of silver nitrate when it is mixed with an excess of sodium chloride? The equation for the reaction is below.<br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f24g1q60g1.gif"/><br/>
- 107.9 g
- 169.9 g
- 84.4 g
- 0.589 g
- 58.9 g
A: 84.4 g

Q: <i>For the following question(s), consider the following balanced equation.<br/></i><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f24g1q61g1.gif"/><br/> <br/><br/>When 36.0 g of H<sub>2</sub>O react, how many grams of NH<sub>3</sub> are produced?
- 34.0 g
- 10.0 g
- 5.67 g
- 11.3 g
- 102 g
A: 11.3 g

Q: <i>For the following question(s), consider the following balanced equation.<br/></i><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f24g1q62g1.gif"/><br/> <br/><br/>How many grams of H<sub>2</sub>O are needed to produce 150 g of Mg(OH)<sub>2</sub>?
- 46 g
- 18 g
- 130 g
- 93 g
- 23 g
A: 93 g

Q: Find the mass of AlCl<sub>3</sub> that is produced when 25.0 grams of Al<sub>2</sub>O<sub>3</sub> reacts with HCl according to the following equation.<br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f24g1q63g1.gif"/><br/>
- 155 g
- 72.9 g
- 65.3 g
- 32.6 g
- 16.3 g
A: 65.3 g

Q: How many grams of NO are required to produce 145 g of N<sub>2</sub> in the following reaction?<br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f24g1q64g1.gif"/><br/>
- 186 g
- 155 g
- 125 g
- 129 g
- 145 g
A: 186 g

Q: How many grams of N<sub>2</sub> are produced when 125 g of NH<sub>3</sub> reacts as shown in the following balanced equation?<br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f24g1q65g1.gif"/><br/>
- 206 g
- 257 g
- 165 g
- 7.35 g
- 145 g
A: 257 g

Q: How many grams of CO<sub>2</sub> are produced from 125 g of O<sub>2</sub> and excess CH<sub>4 </sub>? <br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f24g1q66g1.gif"/><br/>
- 125 g
- 62.5 g
- 172 g
- 85.9 g
- 250. g
A: 85.9 g

Q: The ________ is the minimum energy needed for a chemical reaction to begin.
- reaction energy
- activation energy
- energy of reactants
- energy of products
- heat of reaction
A: activation energy

Q: A reaction that releases energy as it occurs is classified as a(n) ________.
- endothermic reaction
- exothermic reaction
- oxidation-reduction reaction
- catalyzed reaction
- decomposition reaction
A: exothermic reaction

Q: What type of reaction is: CH<sub>4</sub> + 2O<sub>2</sub> <img align="middle" height="17" width="13" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u8594.gif"/> CO<sub>2</sub> + 2H<sub>2</sub>O + 218 kcal?
- an endothermic reaction
- an exothermic reaction
- a single replacement reaction
- a combination reaction
- a decomposition reaction
A: an exothermic reaction

Q: If the reaction shown below is exothermic, the energy level of the reactants is ________.<br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f24g1q70g1.gif"/><br/>
- lower than that of the products
- higher than that of the products
- the same as that of the products
- possibly lower, possibly higher than that of the products
- higher than the activation energy of the reaction
A: higher than that of the products

Q: Any reaction that absorbs 150 kcal of energy can be classified as ________.
- endothermic
- exothermic
- activated
- reduction
- oxidation
A: endothermic

Q: The ________ is the energy difference between reactants and products in a chemical reaction.
- transition energy
- activation energy
- product energy
- overall energy
- heat of reaction
A: heat of reaction

Q: In this reaction, what is the correct coefficient for hydrogen gas?<br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f25g1q1g1.gif"/><br/>
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
A: 2

Q: <i>Barium chloride and sodium sulfate react according to the following equation.<br/></i><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f25g1q2g1.gif"/><br/><br/><i>Answer the following question(s) about this reaction.<br/><br/><br/></i>How many moles of barium sulfate are produced from 0.1 mole of barium chloride?
- 0.01 mole
- 0.1 mole
- 0.2 mole
- 1 mole
- 2 moles
A: 0.1 mole

Q: <i>Barium chloride and sodium sulfate react according to the following equation.<br/></i><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f25g1q3g1.gif"/><br/><br/><i>Answer the following question(s) about this reaction.<br/><br/><br/></i>How many grams of sodium chloride can be produced from 50. grams of barium chloride?
- 2.0 g
- 14 g
- 28 g
- 59 g
- 208 g
A: 28 g

Q: <i>Barium chloride and sodium sulfate react according to the following equation.<br/></i><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f25g1q4g1.gif"/><br/><br/><i>Answer the following question(s) about this reaction.<br/><br/><br/></i>How many grams of barium chloride are needed to make 100. grams of barium sulfate?
- 44.9 g
- 89.2 g
- 208 g
- 233 g
- 46.6 g
A: 89.2 g

Q: <i>Answer the question(s) below about the following reaction.</i><br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f25g1q5g1.gif"/><br/><br/><br/>This is an example of a ________ reaction.
- combustion
- combination
- decomposition
- single replacement
- double replacement
A: decomposition

Q: <i>Answer the question(s) below about the following reaction.</i><br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f25g1q6g1.gif"/><br/><br/><br/>How many moles of oxygen gas can 5.0 moles of hydrogen peroxide ( H<sub>2</sub>O<sub>2</sub>) produce, if decomposition is complete?
- 5.0 moles
- 2.5 moles
- 1.0 mole
- 2.0 moles
- 10. moles
A: 2.5 moles

Q: <i>Answer the question(s) below about the following reaction.</i><br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f25g1q7g1.gif"/><br/><br/><br/>How many grams of water will 100. grams of hydrogen peroxide produce?
- 36.0 g
- 360. g
- 5.88 g
- 53.0 g
- 106 g
A: 53.0 g

Q: <i>Answer the question(s) below about the following reaction.</i><br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f25g1q8g1.gif"/><br/><br/><br/>How many grams of hydrogen peroxide are needed to produce 25.0 g of oxygen?
- 106 g
- 26.6 g
- 5.88 g
- 25.0 g
- 53.2 g
A: 53.2 g

Q: <i>Answer the question(s) below about the following reaction.</i><br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f25g1q9g1.gif"/><br/><br/><br/>How many moles of hydrogen peroxide (H<sub>2</sub>O<sub>2</sub>) are needed to produce 5.0 moles of water?
- 1.0 mole
- 2.0 moles
- 2.5 moles
- 4.0 moles
- 5.0 moles
A: 5.0 moles

Q: The number of particles in 1 mole of hydrogen gas is ________.
Feedback: 6.02 × 10<sup>23</sup>

Q: The molar mass of copper(II) nitrate, Cu(NO<sub>3</sub>)<sub>2</sub> is ________.
A: 187.6 g

Q: What is the mass, in grams, of 1.00 mole of argon gas?
A: 40.0 g

Q: When the following equation is balanced, the coefficient of O<sub>2</sub> is ________.<br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f26g1q4g1.gif"/>
A: 2

Q: When the following equation is balanced, the coefficient of O<sub>2</sub> is ________.<br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f26g1q5g1.gif"/>
A: 7

Q: What type of reaction is the following?<br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f26g1q6g1.gif"/><br/>
A: decomposition

Q: What type of reaction is the following?<br/><br/>Zn + 2HCl <img align="middle" height="17" width="13" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u8594.gif"/> ZnCl<sub>2</sub> + H<sub>2</sub><br/>
A: single replacement

Q: What type of reaction is the following?<br/><br/>2C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>2</sub> + 5O<sub>2</sub> <img align="middle" height="17" width="13" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u8594.gif"/> 4CO<sub>2</sub> + 2H<sub>2</sub>O<br/>
A: combustion

Q: Which reactant is oxidized in the following reaction?<br/><br/>Zn + 2HCl <img align="middle" height="17" width="13" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u8594.gif"/> ZnCl<sub>2</sub> + H<sub>2</sub><br/>
A: Zn

Q: Acetylene gas, C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>2</sub>, reacts with oxygen according to the following equation. If 1 mole of acetylene react completely with sufficient oxygen, how many moles of carbon dioxide are produced?<br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f26g1q10g1.gif"/><br/>
A: 2 moles

Q: When 25.0 g of KClO<sub>3</sub> reacts, how many grams of O<sub>2 </sub>are produced?<br/><br/>2KClO<sub>3</sub> <img align="middle" height="17" width="13" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u8594.gif"/> 2KCl + 3O<sub>2</sub>
A: 9.79 g

Q: Is the following reaction exothermic or endothermic?<br/><br/>C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>6</sub> + O<sub>2</sub> <img align="middle" height="17" width="13" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u8594.gif"/> CO<sub>2</sub> + H<sub>2</sub>O +1300 kJ
A: exothermic

Q: Avogadro's number is the number of grams in a mole.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: The molar mass of silver is 47 g/mole.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: The molar mass of magnesium is 24.31 g/mole.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: The mass of one mole of water is 18.02 g.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: The molar mass of chlorine gas is 35.45 g/mole.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: The molar mass of copper(II) chloride is 134.5 g/mole.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: The following reaction is correctly balanced.<br/>KClO<sub>3</sub> <img align="middle" height="17" width="13" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u8594.gif"/> KCl + O<sub>2</sub>
- True
- False
A: False

Q: The following reaction is correctly balanced.<br/>2C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>2</sub> + 5O<sub>2</sub> <img align="middle" height="17" width="13" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u8594.gif"/> 4CO<sub>2</sub> + 2H<sub>2</sub>O
- True
- False
A: True

Q: The following is a decomposition reaction.<br/>2KClO<sub>3</sub> <img align="middle" height="17" width="13" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u8594.gif"/> 2KCl + 3O<sub>2</sub>
- True
- False
A: True

Q: The following is a double replacement reaction.<br/>2C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>2</sub> + 5O<sub>2</sub> <img align="middle" height="17" width="13" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u8594.gif"/> 4CO<sub>2</sub> + 2H<sub>2</sub>O
- True
- False
A: False

Q: In the following reaction Al is oxidized.<br/>2Al + 3Br<sub>2</sub> <img align="middle" height="17" width="13" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u8594.gif"/> 2AlBr<sub>3</sub>
- True
- False
A: True

Q: In the following reaction C is reduced.<br/>2C + O<sub>2</sub> <img align="middle" height="17" width="13" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u8594.gif"/> 2CO
- True
- False
A: False

Q: In the reaction of hydrogen gas with oxygen gas to produce water, 1 mole of oxygen gas can produce 2 moles of water, given sufficient hydrogen available.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: In the following reaction, 20.0 g of Al will react completely with 30.0 g of Br<sub>2</sub>.<br/>2Al + 3Br<sub>2</sub> <img align="middle" height="17" width="13" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u8594.gif"/> 2AlBr<sub>3</sub>
- True
- False
A: False

Q: In the following reaction, when 100. g of Br<sub>2</sub> reacts, 111 g of AlBr<sub>3</sub> is formed.<br/>2Al + 3Br<sub>2</sub> <img align="middle" height="17" width="13" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u8594.gif"/> 2AlBr<sub>3</sub>
- True
- False
A: True

Q: The following reaction is endothermic.<br/>2C<sub>2</sub>H<sub>2</sub> + 5O<sub>2</sub> <img align="middle" height="17" width="13" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u8594.gif"/> 4CO<sub>2</sub> + 2H<sub>2</sub>O + 310 kcal
- True
- False
A: False

Q: Which of the following is not part of the kinetic theory of gases?
- A gas is composed of very small particles.
- There is very little empty space in a gas.
- Gas particles move rapidly.
- Gas particles do not attract or repel one another.
- Gas particles move faster when the temperature increases.
A: There is very little empty space in a gas.

Q: According to the kinetic theory of gases, a gas can be compressed much more than a liquid or solid because ________.
- a gas is composed of very small particles
- the particles of a gas are very far apart
- gas particles move rapidly
- gas particles do not attract or repel one another
- gas particles move faster when the temperature increases
A: the particles of a gas are very far apart

Q: In the kinetic molecular theory of gas behavior, the assumption is made that gas molecules ________.
- move rapidly in random directions
- are attracted to each other by strong forces
- are close together in their container
- move with a kinetic energy equal to their centigrade temperature
- occasionally come to rest
A: move rapidly in random directions

Q: According to the kinetic theory of gases, particles of a gas ________.
- are very large particles
- are very far apart
- lose their valence electrons
- move slowly
- decrease kinetic energy as temperature increases
A: are very far apart

Q: In the kinetic molecular theory of gas behavior, particles of a gas tend to move ________ and collisions between them are ________.
- rapidly, rare
- slowly, rare
- rapidly, elastic
- slowly, elastic
- slowly, unusual
A: rapidly, elastic

Q: The force of gas particles against the walls of a container is called ________.
- pressure
- volume
- temperature
- quantity of gas
- density
A: pressure

Q: Which measurement describes the pressure of a gas?
- 315 K
- 1.2 g/L
- 2.5 L
- 725 mmHg
- 0.45 moles
A: 725 mmHg

Q: The unit of 1 atmosphere used to describe the pressure of a gas is equal to ________.
- 1 mmHg
- 100 mmHg
- 200 mmHg
- 600 mmHg
- 760 mmHg
A: 760 mmHg

Q: A 5.00-L tank contains helium gas at 1.50 atm. What is the pressure of the gas in mmHg?
- 1.50 mmHg
- 507 mmHg
- 760 mmHg
- 1140 mmHg
- 3800 mmHg
A: 1140 mmHg

Q: In response to Boyle's law, the pressure of a gas increases as the volume decreases because ________.
- the gas particles get bigger
- the kinetic energy of the gas particles increases
- the temperature of the gas increases
- the gas particles strike the walls of the container with more force
- the gas particles strike the walls of the container more often
A: the gas particles strike the walls of the container more often

Q: Which of the following correctly describes the process of inspiration (air entering the lungs)?
- The lungs expand, causing their internal pressure to decrease.
- The lungs expand, causing their internal pressure to increase.
- The lungs contract, causing their internal pressure to decrease.
- The lungs contract, causing their internal pressure to increase.
- There is no change in the internal pressure in the lungs.
A: The lungs expand, causing their internal pressure to decrease.

Q: The volume of a gas with a pressure of 1.2 atm increases from 1.0 L to 4.0 L. What is the final pressure of the gas, assuming constant temperature?
- 1.2 atm
- 0.30 atm
- 3.3 atm
- 4.8 atm
- 1.0 atm
A: 0.30 atm

Q: The pressure of 5.0 L of gas increases from 1.50 atm to 1240 mmHg. What is the final volume of the gas, assuming constant temperature?
- 4100 L
- 5.0 L
- 0.0060 L
- 5.4 L
- 4.6 L
A: 4.6 L

Q: The gas with an initial volume of 24.0 L at a pressure of 565 torr is compressed until the volume is 16.0 L. What is the final pressure of the gas, assuming the temperature does not change?
- 377 torr
- 760 torr
- 848 torr
- 500. torr
- 465 torr
A: 848 torr

Q: <i>A balloon is filled with helium gas. For the following question(s), select the letter of the balloon diagram that corresponds to the given change in conditions.<br/></i><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f28g1q15g1.gif"/><img align="middle" height="194" width="364" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f28g1q15g2.jpg"/><br/><br/>The balloon is put into a chamber where the pressure is less than the atmospheric pressure.
- A
- B
- C
- A and B
- B and C
A: C

Q: At constant temperature, a sample of helium at 760. torr in a closed container was compressed from 5.00 L to 3.00 L. What was the new pressure exerted by the helium on its container?
- 800. torr
- 2280 torr
- 15.0 torr
- 3800 torr
- 1270 torr
A: 1270 torr

Q: A gas sample in a closed, expandable container of initial volume 5.00 L was allowed to warm from 25 °C to <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f28g1q17g1.gif"/> What was its new volume?
- 4.84 L
- 5.17 L
- 7.00 L
- 3.57 L
- 4380 L
A: 5.17 L

Q: <i>A balloon is filled with helium gas. For the following question(s), select the letter of the balloon diagram that corresponds to the given change in conditions.<br/></i><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f28g1q18g1.gif"/><img align="middle" height="194" width="364" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f28g1q18g2.jpg"/><br/><br/>The temperature is changed from 50 °C to -150 °C at constant pressure.
- A
- B
- C
- A and B
- B and C
A: A

Q: Complete the following statement: In Charles's law, the volume of a gas ________ when the ________ decreases.
- increases, temperature
- increases, quantity of gas
- increases, pressure
- decreases, temperature
- decreases, pressure
A: decreases, temperature

Q: What temperature scale is used in gas law calculations?
- Fahrenheit
- Celsius
- Kelvin
- either Celsius or Fahrenheit
- either Celsius or Kelvin
A: Kelvin

Q: A temperature of 125 °C is the same as ________.
- -148 K
- 398 K
- 257 K
- 530. K
- 273 K
A: 398 K

Q: The temperature of a 500. mL sample of gas increases from 150. K to 350. K. What is the final volume of the sample of gas, if the pressure in the container is kept constant?
- 210 mL
- 1170 mL
- 0.00950 mL
- 0.00474 mL
- 110 mL
A: 1170 mL

Q: In Gay-Lussac's law, the pressure of a gas increases due to an increase in temperature because ________.
- the molecules strike the walls of the container less often
- the molecules strike the walls of the container more often
- the molecules get bigger
- there is a decrease in the volume of the container
- there is an increase in the number of gas particles
A: the molecules strike the walls of the container more often

Q: A gas contained in a steel tank has a pressure of 1.5 atm at a temperature of 320 K. What will be the gas pressure when the temperature changes to 450 K?
- 1.5 atm
- 0.94 atm
- 0.47 atm
- 2.1 atm
- 1.1 atm
A: 2.1 atm

Q: A sample of argon at 300. °C and 50.0 atm pressure is cooled in the same container to a temperature of <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f28g1q25g1.gif"/> What is the new pressure?
- 105 atm
- 45.5 atm
- 54.9 atm
- 23.8 atm
- 42.7 atm
A: 23.8 atm

Q: A gas at 5.00 atm pressure was stored in a tank during the winter at 5.0 °C. During the summer, the temperature in the storage area reached 40.0 °C. What was the pressure in the gas tank in the summer?
- 0.625 atm
- 4.44 atm
- 5.63 atm
- 40.0 atm
- 69.5 atm
A: 5.63 atm

Q: A sample of nitrogen gas had a volume of 500. mL, a pressure in its closed container of 740 torr, and a temperature of 25 °C. What was the new volume of the gas when the temperature was changed to 50 °C and the new pressure was 760 torr?
- 530 mL
- 450 mL
- 970 mL
- 240 mL
- 400 mL
A: 530 mL

Q: At 570. mmHg and 25 °C, a gas sample has a volume of 2270 mL. What is the final pressure (in mmHg) at a volume of 1250 mL and a temperature of 175 °C?
- 1560 mmHg
- 210 mmHg
- 7000 mmHg
- 690 mmHg
- 470 mmHg
A: 1560 mmHg

Q: A diver exhales a bubble with a volume of 250 mL at a pressure of 2.4 atm and a temperature of 15 °C. What is the volume of the bubble when it reaches the surface where the pressure is 1.0 atm and the temperature is 27 °C?
- 580 mL
- 630 mL
- 100 mL
- 110 mL
- 1100 mL
A: 630 mL

Q: According to Avogadro's law, ________.
- the volume of a gas is inversely related to the number of moles at constant temperature and pressure
- the volume of a gas is inversely related to the number of moles at standard temperature and pressure
- the volume of a gas depends only on the temperature and pressure
- the volume of a gas depends only on the number of moles in the sample
- the volume of a gas is directly related to the number of moles at constant temperature and pressure
A: the volume of a gas is directly related to the number of moles at constant temperature and pressure

Q: At STP, temperature and pressure have the values of ________.
- 0 K and 1 atm
- 273 K and 1 mmHg
- 273 K and 760 mmHg
- 0 K and 760 mmHg
- 760 K and 273 atm
A: 273 K and 760 mmHg

Q: A gas sample contains 4.0 g of CH<sub>4</sub> and 2.0 g of He. What is the volume of the sample at STP?
- 130 L
- 11 L
- 17 L
- 30. L
- 5.6 L
A: 17 L

Q: A gas sample containing 12 g of CH<sub>4</sub> has a volume of 14 L. What will the volume be if 12 g of He is added? (Temperature and pressure do not change.)
- 22.4. L
- 53 L
- 56 L
- 70 L
- 3.5 L
A: 70 L

Q: How many moles of neon occupy a volume of 14.3 L at STP?
- 36.7 moles
- 32.0 moles
- 6.45 moles
- 0.638 moles
- 1.57 moles
A: 0.638 moles

Q: 1 mole of a gas occupies 22.4 L at ________.
- 0 °C and 0.50 atm
- 0 °C and 760 mmHg
- 100 °C and 1 atm
- 100 °C and 10 atm
- 0 K and 1 atm
A: 0 °C and 760 mmHg

Q: At STP conditions, 11 g of SO<sub>2</sub> have a volume of ________.
- 250 L
- 3.8 L
- 22 L
- 0.0076 L
- 130 L
A: 3.8 L

Q: The total pressure in a mixture of gases is equal to the partial pressure(s) of ________.
- the gas with the greatest number of moles
- the gas with the smallest number of moles
- the gas with the highest molecular weight
- the gas that occupies the largest volume
- all the gases added together
A: all the gases added together

Q: A cyclopropane-oxygen mixture is used as an anesthetic. If the partial pressure of cyclopropane in the mixture is 330 mmHg and the partial pressure of the oxygen is 1.0 atm, what is the total pressure of the mixture in torr?
- 330 torr
- 430 torr
- 760 torr
- 1.4 torr
- 1100 torr
A: 1100 torr

Q: A tank contains helium gas at 490 mmHg, nitrogen gas at 0.75 atm, and neon at 520 torr. What is the total pressure in atm?
- 2.1 atm
- 0.55 atm
- 1.0 × 10<sup>3</sup> atm
- 1.5 atm
- 1600 atm
A: 2.1 atm

Q: Which of the following correctly describes the partial pressures of gases in the body?
- high O<sub>2</sub>, low CO<sub>2</sub>, oxygenated blood
- high O<sub>2</sub>, low CO<sub>2</sub>, deoxygenated blood
- high O<sub>2</sub>, high CO<sub>2</sub>, oxygenated blood
- high O<sub>2</sub>, high CO<sub>2</sub>, tissue
- low O<sub>2</sub>, low CO<sub>2</sub>, deoxygenated blood
A: high O<sub>2</sub>, low CO<sub>2</sub>, oxygenated blood

Q: Which of the following is not a potential use for a hyperbaric chamber?
- treatment for burns and infections
- counteracting carbon monoxide poisoning
- increasing the rate at which a broken bone heals
- treating a diver with the bends
- treating some cancers
A: increasing the rate at which a broken bone heals

Q: The pressure exerted by a gas on its container is directly proportional to ________.
- the volume of the container
- the mass of the individual gas molecules
- the Celsius temperature of the gas
- the number of molecules of gas in the sample
- the Fahrenheit temperature of the gas
A: the number of molecules of gas in the sample

Q: At STP, what is the volume of 4.50 moles of nitrogen gas?
- 167 L
- 3420 L
- 101 L
- 60.7 L
- 1230 L
A: 101 L

Q: At STP, how many moles of helium would occupy 1.00 L?
- 2.24 moles
- 224 moles
- 22.4 moles
- 0.446 moles
- 0.0446 moles
A: 0.0446 moles

Q: At STP, what is the volume of 1.0 mole of carbon dioxide?
- 1.00 L
- 44.0 L
- 273 L
- 22.4 L
- 12.2 L
A: 22.4 L

Q: At STP, what is the mass 13.0 L of methane, CH<sub>4</sub>?
- 0.580 g
- 16.0 g
- 9.31 g
- 27.6 g
- 22.4 g
A: 9.31 g

Q: Nitrogen makes up about ________ percent of the atmosphere.
A: 78

Q: A barometer is usually filled with ________.
A: mercury

Q: One atmosphere is the same pressure as ________ mmHg.
A: 760 mmHg

Q: The pressure unit 1 mmHg is the same pressure unit as the pressure unit ________.
A: 1 torr

Q: According to Boyle's Law, when the volume increases, the pressure ________.
A: decreases

Q: A gas has a volume of 12.0 L when the pressure is 840. torr. When the pressure changes to 600. torr, what is the new volume, if there is no change in temperature or amount of gas?
A: 16.8 L

Q: A gas has a volume of 46.0 L when the temperature is 400. K. When the temperature changes to 500. K, what is the new volume, if there is no change in pressure or amount of gas?
A: 57.5 L

Q: A temperature of 273 °C is equivalent to ________ K.
A: 546 K

Q: A gas has a pressure of 540. torr when the temperature is 127 °C. When the temperature changes to 27 °C, what is the new pressure, if there is no change in volume or amount of gas?
A: 405 torr

Q: A gas has a pressure of 700. mmHg when the temperature is 107 °C. At what temperature (°C) will the pressure be 600. mmHg, if there is no change in volume or amount of gas?
Feedback: 53 °C

Q: A gas has a volume of 45.0 L and a pressure of 540. mmHg when the temperature is 27 °C. What is the volume when the pressure changes to 800. mmHg with a temperature of -65 °C, if there is no change in the amount of gas?
A: 21.1 L

Q: A gas has a volume of 36.0 L and a pressure of 750. torr when the temperature is 10. °C. What is the pressure if the volume changes to 15.0 L and the temperature changes to 78 °C, if the amount of gas stays the same?
A: 2230 torr

Q: STP is ________ mmHg and ________K.
A: 760; 273

Q: What is the volume, in L, of 36.0 g of CH<sub>4</sub> at STP?
A: 50.3 L

Q: What is the total pressure (in atm) of a gas mixture, which has CH<sub>4</sub> 600. torr and He 450. mmHg?
A: 1.38 atm

Q: The total pressure of a mixture of CO<sub>2</sub> and O<sub>2</sub> is 780 mmHg. If the pressure of the CO<sub>2</sub> is 560. torr, what is the pressure of O<sub>2</sub>?
A: 220. mmHg

Q: The air we breathe is about 21% oxygen.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: The speed of gas molecules is related to the volume of the container.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: The kinetic energy of a gas sample is directly proportional to the Kelvin temperature of the gas.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: At 0 K, all molecular motion stops.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: The pressure increases as the volume increases, if temperature does not change.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: Gas law calculations require the use of the Kelvin temperature scale.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: The pressure exerted by a gas on its container is inversely related to its Kelvin temperature.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: The volume of 1 mole of any gas at STP is 22.4 L.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: STP stands for 0 °C and 760 mmHg.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: During inspiration, we use 100% of the oxygen in the air we breathe.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: In deoxygenated blood, the partial pressure of carbon dioxide is greater than the partial pressure of oxygen left.
- True
- False
A: True

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Q: The O-H bond in water is polar because ________.
- it is an ionic bond
- oxygen is much more electronegative than hydrogen
- oxygen occupies more space than hydrogen
- hydrogen is much more electronegative than oxygen
- it is a hydrogen bond
A: oxygen is much more electronegative than hydrogen

Q: A hydrogen bond is ________.
- an attractive force between molecules where partially positive hydrogen atoms are attracted to partially negative atoms of F,O, or N
- a covalent bond between H and O
- an ionic bond between H and another atom
- a bond that is stronger than a covalent bond
- the polar O<img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>H bond in water
A: an attractive force between molecules where partially positive hydrogen atoms are attracted to partially negative atoms of F,O, or N

Q: In a solution, the solvent ________.
- is a liquid.
- can be a liquid or gas.
- can be a solid, liquid, or gas.
- is never a solid.
- is the substance present in the smallest concentration.
A: can be a solid, liquid, or gas.

Q: Which of the following molecules can form hydrogen bonds?
- CH<sub>4</sub>
- NaH
- NH<sub>3</sub>
- BH<sub>3</sub>
- HI
A: NH<sub>3</sub>

Q: A mixture is prepared by dissolving 2 g of KCl in 100 g of H<sub>2</sub>O. In this mixture, H<sub>2</sub>O is the ________.
- solute
- solvent
- solution
- solid
- ionic compound
A: solvent

Q: Oil does not dissolve in water because ________.
- oil is polar
- oil is nonpolar
- water is nonpolar
- water is saturated
- oil is hydrated
A: oil is nonpolar

Q: When KCl dissolves in water ________.
- the Cl<sup>-</sup> ions are attracted to dissolved K<sup>+</sup> ions
- the Cl<sup>-</sup> ions are attracted to the partial negative charge on the oxygen atom of the water molecule
- the K<sup>+</sup> ions are attracted to Cl<sup>-</sup> ions on the KCl crystal
- the K<sup>+</sup> ions are attracted to the partial negative charge on the oxygen atom of the water molecule
- the K<sup>+</sup> ions are attracted to the partial positive charge on the hydrogen atoms of the water molecule
A: the K<sup>+</sup> ions are attracted to the partial negative charge on the oxygen atom of the water molecule

Q: Water is a polar solvent and hexane (C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>14</sub>) is a nonpolar solvent. Which of the following correctly describes the solubility of the solute in the given solvent?
- mineral oil, soluble in water
- CaCl<sub>2</sub>, soluble in hexane
- NaHCO<sub>3</sub>, soluble in water
- CCl<sub>4</sub>, soluble in water
- octane, soluble in water
A: NaHCO<sub>3</sub>, soluble in water

Q: In water, a substance that ionizes completely in solution is called a ________.
- weak electrolyte
- nonelectrolyte
- semiconductor
- nonconductor
- strong electrolyte
A: strong electrolyte

Q: An equivalent is ________.
- the amount of ion that has a 1+ charge
- the amount of ion that has a 1- charge
- the amount of ion that carries 1 mole of electrical charge
- 1 mole of any ion
- 1 mole of an ionic compound
A: the amount of ion that carries 1 mole of electrical charge

Q: How many equivalents are in 0.60 mole of Mg<sup>2+</sup>?
- 0.60 Eq
- 0.30 Eq
- 1.2 Eq
- 2.0 Eq
- 1.0 Eq
A: 1.2 Eq

Q: How many equivalents are in 0.40 mole of K<sup>+</sup>?
- 0.40 Eq
- 0.80 Eq
- 0.20 Eq
- 2.0 Eq
- 1.0 Eq
A: 0.40 Eq

Q: A solution contains 43 mEq/L of of Cl<sup>-</sup> and 11 mEq/L of HPO<sub>4</sub><sup>2-</sup>. If the only cation in the solution is Na<sup>+</sup>,what is the Na<sup>+</sup>concentration in mEq/L?
- 43 mEq/L
- 11 mEq/L
- 54 mEq/L
- 32 mEq/L
- 2.0 mEq/L
A: 54 mEq/L

Q: When some of the sugar added to iced tea remains undissolved at the bottom of the glass, the solution is ________.
- dilute
- polar
- nonpolar
- saturated
- unsaturated
A: saturated

Q: The solubility of KI is 50 g in 100 g of H<sub>2</sub>O at 20 °C. If 110 grams of KI are added to 200 grams of H<sub>2</sub>O, ________.
- all of the KI will dissolve
- the solution will freeze
- the solution will start boiling
- a saturated solution will form
- the solution will be unsaturated
A: a saturated solution will form

Q: The compound KOH is ________.
- soluble, because all compounds containing OH<sup>-</sup> are soluble
- insoluble, because all compounds containing OH<sup>-</sup> are in soluble
- soluble, because all compounds containing K<sup>+</sup> are soluble
- insoluble, because all compounds containing K<sup>+</sup> are insoluble
- insoluble, because KOH is insoluble
A: soluble, because all compounds containing K<sup>+</sup> are soluble

Q: An increase in the temperature of a solution usually ________.
- increases the boiling point
- increases the solubility of a gas in the solution
- increases the solubility of a solid solute in the solution
- decreases the solubility of a solid solute in the solution
- decreases the solubility of a liquid solute in the solution
A: increases the solubility of a solid solute in the solution

Q: According to Henry's law, the solubility of a gas in a liquid ________.
- decreases as the gas pressure above the liquid increases
- increases as the gas pressure above the liquid increases
- remains the same as the temperature increases
- depends on the liquid polarity
- depends on the liquid density
A: increases as the gas pressure above the liquid increases

Q: The mass percent concentration refers to ________.
- grams of solute in 1 kg of solvent
- grams of solute in 1 kg of solution
- grams of solute in 100 g of solvent
- grams of solute in 100 g of solution
- grams of solvent in 100 g of solution
A: grams of solute in 100 g of solution

Q: What is the concentration, in<i> </i>mass percent (m/m), of a solution prepared from 50.0 g NaCl and 150.0 g of water?
- 0.250% (m/m)
- 33.3% (m/m)
- 40.0% (m/m)
- 25.0% (m/m)
- 3.00% (m/m)
A: 25.0% (m/m)

Q: Rubbing alcohol is 70.% (m/v) isopropyl alcohol by volume. How many mL of isopropyl alcohol are in a 1 pint (473 mL) container?
- 70. mL
- 0.15 mL
- 680 mL
- 470 mL
- 330 mL
A: 330 mL

Q: What is the concentration, mass/volume percent (m/v), of a solution prepared from 50. g NaCl and 2.5 L of water?
- 5.0% (m/v)
- 2.0% (m/v)
- 0.020% (m/v)
- 0.050% (m/v)
- 20.% (m/v)
A: 2.0% (m/v)

Q: How many grams of glucose are needed to prepare 400. mL of a 2.0%(m/v) glucose solution?
- 800. g
- 0.0050 g
- 8.0 g
- 2.0 g
- 200. g
A: 8.0 g

Q: What volume (mL) of a 15% (m/v) NaOH solution contains 120 g NaOH?
- 18 mL
- 0.13 mL
- 13 mL
- 120 mL
- 8.0 × 10<sup>2</sup> mL
A: 8.0 × 10<sup>2</sup> mL

Q: How many milliliters of a 25% (m/v) NaOH solution would contain 75 g of NaOH?
- 25 mL
- 75 mL
- 33 mL
- 19 mL
- 3.0 × 10<sup>2</sup> mL
A: 3.0 × 10<sup>2</sup> mL

Q: What is the molarity of a solution that contains 17 g of NH<sub>3</sub> in 0.50 L of solution?
- 34 M
- 2.0 M
- 0.50 M
- 0.029 M
- 1.0 M
A: 2.0 M

Q: The molarity (M) of a solution refers to ________.
- moles of solute/L of solution
- moles of solute/ L of solvent
- moles of solute/100 mL of solution
- grams of solute/100 mL of solution
- grams of solute/L of solution
A: moles of solute/L of solution

Q: What is the molarity of a solution containing 5.0 moles of KCl in 2.0 L of solution?
- 2.5 M
- 1.0 M
- 5.0 M
- 10. M
- 2.0 M
A: 2.5 M

Q: What is the molarity of a solution which contains 58.5 g of sodium chloride dissolved in 0.500 L of solution?
- 0.500 M
- 1.00 M
- 1.50 M
- 2.00 M
- 4.00 M
A: 2.00 M

Q: How many moles of CaCl<sub>2</sub> are in 250 mL of a 3.0 M of CaCl<sub>2</sub> solution?
- 750 moles
- 1.3 moles
- 83 moles
- 0.75 mole
- 3.0 moles
A: 0.75 mole

Q: What volume of a 1.5 M KOH solution is needed to provide 3.0 moles of KOH?
- 3.0 L
- 0.50 L
- 2.0 L
- 4.5 L
- 0.22 L
A: 2.0 L

Q: What mass of KCl is in 350 mL of 0.24 M KCl?
- 0.84 g
- 1.1.g
- 84 g
- 18 g
- 6.3 g
A: 6.3 g

Q: During the process of diluting a solution to a lower concentration, ________.
- the amount of solute does not change
- the amount of solvent does not change
- there is more solute in the concentrated solution
- the volume of the solution does not change
- water is removed from the concentrated solution
A: the amount of solute does not change

Q: What is the molarity of a KCl solution made by diluting 75.0 mL of a 0.200 M solution to a final volume of 100. mL?
- 0.267 M
- 0.150 M
- 0.200 M
- 6.67 M
- 0.100 M
A: 0.150 M

Q: What volume of 2.5% (m/v) KOH can be prepared from 125 mL of a 5.0% (m/v) KOH solution?
- 0.0040 mL
- 63 mL
- 0.10 mL
- 125 mL
- 250 mL
A: 250 mL

Q: What volume of 0.10 M NaOH can be prepared from 250. mL of 0.30 M NaOH?
- 0.075 L
- 0.25 L
- 0.75 L
- 0.083 L
- 750 L
A: 0.75 L

Q: What volume of a 2.00 M KCl solution is required to prepare 500. mL of a 0.100 M KCl solution?
- 0.0400 mL
- 25.0 mL
- 2.00 mL
- 1.00 × 10<sup>4</sup> mL
- 5.00 × 10<sup>2</sup> mL
A: 25.0 mL

Q: What is the new mass/volume percent (m/v) of a KOH solution that is prepared by diluting 110 mL of a 6.0% (m/v) KOH solution to 330 mL?
- 2.0% (m/v)
- 1.0% (m/v)
- 6.0% (m/v)
- 12% (m/v)
- 18% (m/v)
A: 2.0% (m/v)

Q: A homogeneous mixture that does not settle out upon standing is ________.
- an element
- a colloid
- a suspension
- solid
- hydrated
A: a colloid

Q: In the process known as osmosis, ________ moves through a semipermeable membrane into an area of ________ concentration.
- solute, lower solute
- solute, higher solute
- solvent, lower solute
- solvent, lower solvent
- solvent, higher solvent
A: solvent, lower solvent

Q: <i>For the following question(s), consider a 4% starch solution and a 10% starch solution separated by a semipermeable membrane.<br/><br/><br/></i>Which starch solution will decrease in volume as osmosis occurs?
- 4%
- 10%
- Neither exerts osmotic pressure.
- They exert equal osmotic pressures.
- They exert opposite osmotic pressures.
A: 4%

Q: <i>For the following question(s), consider a 4% starch solution and a 10% starch solution separated by a semipermeable membrane.<br/><br/><br/></i>The process that occurs in this system is ________.
- filtration
- hydration
- neutralization
- dialysis
- osmosis
A: osmosis

Q: <i>For the following question(s), consider a 4% starch solution and a 10% starch solution separated by a semipermeable membrane.<br/><br/><br/></i>Which of the following also occurs in this system?
- Water flows equally in both directions.
- There is a net flow of water from the 4% starch solution into the 10% starch solution.
- There is a net flow of water from the 10% starch solution into the 4% starch solution.
- Water does not cross the membrane at all.
- Starch moves out of the 10% starch solution into the 4% starch solution.
A: There is a net flow of water from the 4% starch solution into the 10% starch solution.

Q: A solution with the same osmotic pressure as the blood is ________.
- isotonic to the blood
- hypotonic to the blood
- hypertonic to the blood
- nontonic to the blood
- molar to the blood
A: isotonic to the blood

Q: A 10% starch solution is separated from a 2% starch solution by a semipermeable membrane. Starch is a colloid. Which of the following is correct?
- The 10% solution has the higher osmotic pressure.
- The 2% solution has the higher osmotic pressure.
- Neither solution has osmotic pressure.
- The solutions have the same osmotic pressure.
- The solutions have opposite osmotic pressures.
A: The 10% solution has the higher osmotic pressure.

Q: A solution that has an osmotic pressure less than that of red blood cells is called ________.
- saturated
- hypertonic
- isotonic
- hypotonic
- unsaturated
A: hypotonic

Q: A red blood cell will undergo crenation in ________.
- water
- 0.5% NaCl
- 3% glucose
- 5% glucose
- 7% NaCl
A: 7% NaCl

Q: Which solution is isotonic to a red blood cell?
- water
- 0.5% NaCl
- 2% glucose
- 0.9% NaCl
- 10% glucose
A: 0.9% NaCl

Q: A red blood cell will undergo hemolysis in ________.
- water
- 0.9% NaCl
- 5% glucose
- 5% NaCl
- 10% glucose
A: water

Q: The process by which a semipermeable membrane allows water molecules, small molecules, and ions to pass through while retaining large particles is called ________.
- osmotic pressure
- dialysis
- solvation
- dilution
- hydration
A: dialysis

Q: An aqueous mixture containing starch (a colloid), NaCl, glucose, and albumin (a colloid) is placed in a dialysis bag and immersed in distilled water. Which of the following correctly describes the location of the indicated substance after dialysis?
- albumin inside
- starch outside
- albumin inside and outside
- water inside only
- starch inside and outside
A: albumin inside

Q: Acetic acid can be classified as a ________.
- gas
- solid
- weak electrolyte
- strong electrolyte
- ionic compound
A: weak electrolyte

Q: The molarity of a solution of 5.0 g of KCl in 100. mL of solution is ________.
- 0.038 M
- 0.067 M
- 0.67 M
- 0.13 M
- 1.3 M
A: 0.67 M

Q: Using a kidney machine to remove waste products from the blood is known as ________.
- osmosis
- osmolysis
- autolysis
- hemolysis
- hemodialysis
A: hemodialysis

Q: A ________ will pass through a filter but not a semipermeable membrane.
- solid
- precipitate
- solution
- suspension
- colloid
A: colloid

Q: Polar solutes are soluble in ________ solvents.
A: polar

Q: A substance that carries an electric current when dissolved in water is called a(n) ________.
A: electrolyte

Q: A substance that produces only a small number of ions in solution is known as a ________ electrolyte.
A: weak

Q: A substance that completely ionizes in water is a ________ electrolyte.
A: strong

Q: How many equivalents are in 0.036 mole of Ca<sup>2+</sup>?
A: 0.072 equivalents

Q: When KCl is added to water, the salt will be ________.
A: soluble

Q: When MgO is added to water, the salt will be ________.
A: insoluble

Q: When NH<sub>4</sub>Cl is added to water, the salt will be ________.
A: soluble

Q: A 2.0% (m/v) NaCl solution contains ________ g NaCl in 300. mL of solution.
A: 6.0 g

Q: 200. mL of a 12.0% (m/v) NaCl solution is diluted to 600. mL. The new concentration is ________ %.
Feedback: 4.00 % (m/v)

Q: A solution which has 12 g of solute dissolved in 200.mL of solution has a m/v concentration of ________.
Feedback: 6.0% (m/v)

Q: The number of moles of a compound dissolved in one liter of a solution is called the<br/>________.
A: molarity

Q: When 50. mL of 10.% (m/v) NaCl is diluted to 500. mL, the NaCl concentration is _____%.
Feedback: 1.0% (m/v)

Q: If 450. mL of 6.0 M KBr solution is diluted to 900. mL, the concentration of the KBr solution is _____M.
A: 3.0 M KBr

Q: Which has a higher osmotic pressure 1.0 M sucrose or water?
A: 1.0 M sucrose

Q: ________ can pass through filters but cannot pass through semipermeable membranes.
A: Colloids

Q: If a red blood cell is placed in 5% NaCl solution, the red blood cell will________.
A: crenate

Q: If a red blood cell is placed in 1% glucose solution, the red blood cell will________.
A: hemolyze

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Q: According to the Arrhenius concept, if HNO<sub>3 </sub>were dissolved in water, it would act as ________.
- a base
- an acid
- a source of hydroxide ions
- a source of H<sup>-</sup> ions
- a proton acceptor
A: an acid

Q: The name given to an aqueous solution of HBr is ________.
- hydrogen bromide
- hydrobromic acid
- bromic acid
- bromous acid
- hypobromous acid
A: hydrobromic acid

Q: Which one of the following is characteristic of a base?
- produces H<sub>3</sub>O<sup>+</sup> in water
- has a sour taste
- has a slippery, soapy feel
- turns blue litmus red
- is insoluble in water
A: has a slippery, soapy feel

Q: Which one of the following is characteristic of an acid?
- produces H<sub>3</sub>O<sup>+</sup> in water
- has a bitter taste
- has a slippery, soapy feel
- turns litmus blue
- is insoluble in water
A: produces H<sub>3</sub>O<sup>+</sup> in water

Q: According to the Brønsted-Lowry definition, ________.
- an acid is a proton acceptor
- a base produces H<sup>+</sup> ions in aqueous solutions
- a base is a proton donor
- a base is a proton acceptor
- an acid acts as the solvent
A: a base is a proton acceptor

Q: Identify the Brønsted-Lowry acid in the following reaction.<br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f36g1q6g1.gif"/><br/>
- H<sub>2</sub>O
- CO<sub>3</sub><sup>2-</sup>
- HCO<sub>3</sub><sup><sup>-</sup></sup>
- OH<sup>-</sup>
- H<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub>
A: H<sub>2</sub>O

Q: The correct formula for sulfuric acid is ________.
- H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>
- H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>3</sub>
- H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub><sup><sup>-</sup></sup>
- H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>3</sub><sup><sup>-</sup></sup>
- SO<sub>4</sub><sup>2-</sup>
A: H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>

Q: The name of Al(OH)<sub>3</sub> is ________.
- aluminum trihydroxide
- monoaluminum trihydroxide
- aluminum hydroxide
- aluminum(III) hydroxide
- aluminum oxygen hydride
A: aluminum hydroxide

Q: The conjugate acid of H<sub>2</sub>O is ________.
- H<sub>3</sub>O<sup>+</sup>
- OH<sup>-</sup>
- H<sub>2</sub>O
- H<sup>+</sup>
- H<sub>2</sub>O has no conjugate acid.
A: H<sub>3</sub>O<sup>+</sup>

Q: The conjugate base of H<sub>2</sub>O is ________.
- H<sub>3</sub>O<sup>+</sup>
- OH<sup>-</sup>
- H<sub>2</sub>O
- O<sup>2-</sup>
- H<sub>2</sub>O has no conjugate base.
A: OH<sup>-</sup>

Q: Which of the following is correctly identified?
- NH<sub>3</sub>, strong acid
- NaOH, strong base
- HCl, weak acid
- H<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub>, strong acid
- Ca(OH)<sub>2</sub>, weak base
A: NaOH, strong base

Q: Ammonium hydroxide is a weak base because ________.
- it forms a dilute solution
- it is only slightly soluble in water
- is a poor acceptor of protons
- it dissociates only slightly in water
- it is completely ionized in aqueous solution
A: it dissociates only slightly in water

Q: Which of the following is the strongest acid?
- H<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub>
- NH<sub>4</sub><sup><sup>+</sup></sup>
- NaOH
- H<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub>
- HCl
A: HCl

Q: According to LeChâtelier's principle, predict whether adding H<sub>3</sub>O<sup>+</sup> causes the system to shift in the direction of reactants, products, or no change.<br/><br/>NH<sub>4</sub><sup>+</sup>(<i>aq</i>) + H<sub>2</sub>O(<i>l</i>) <img align="middle" height="17" width="16" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u8652.gif"/> NH<sub>3</sub>(<i>aq</i>) + H<sub>3</sub>O<sup>+</sup>(<i>aq</i>)
- reactants
- products
- no change
A: reactants

Q: According to LeChâtelier's principle, predict whether adding H<sub>2</sub>O causes the system to shift in the direction of reactants, products, or no change.<br/><br/>NH<sub>4</sub><sup>+</sup>(<i>aq</i>) + H<sub>2</sub>O(<i>l</i>) <img align="middle" height="17" width="16" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u8652.gif"/> NH<sub>3</sub>(<i>aq</i>) + H<sub>3</sub>O<sup>+</sup>(<i>aq</i>)
- reactants
- products
- no change
A: products

Q: A chemical reaction has reached equilibrium when ________.
- the concentrations of reactants and products are equal
- all reactants have been converted to products
- all products have been removed from the reaction mixture
- the catalyst has been used up
- the rate of the forward reaction equals the rate of the reverse reaction
A: the rate of the forward reaction equals the rate of the reverse reaction

Q: When a reaction is at equilibrium, ________.
- all reaction stops
- no more reactants are converted to products
- the reaction is no longer reversible
- the forward and reverse reactions occur at the same rate
- the products and reactants have the same energy content
A: the forward and reverse reactions occur at the same rate

Q: Which of the following statements correctly describes the hydronium-hydroxide balance in the given solution?
- In acids, [OH<sup>-</sup>] is greater than [H<sub>3</sub>O<sup>+</sup>].
- In bases, [OH<sup>-</sup>] = [H<sub>3</sub>O<sup>+</sup>].
- In neutral solutions, [H<sub>3</sub>O<sup>+</sup>] = [H<sub>2</sub>O].
- In bases, [OH<sup>-</sup>] is greater than [H<sub>3</sub>O<sup>+</sup>].
- In bases, [OH<sup>-</sup>] is less than [H<sub>3</sub>O<sup>+</sup>].
A: In bases, [OH<sup>-</sup>] is greater than [H<sub>3</sub>O<sup>+</sup>].

Q: For <i>K</i><sub>w</sub>, the product of [H<sub>3</sub>O<sup>+</sup>] and [OH<sup>-</sup>] is ________.
- 1.0 × 10<sup>-14</sup>
- 1.0 × 10<sup>-7</sup>
- 1.0 × 10<sup>-1</sup>
- 1.0
- 1.0 × 10<sup>14</sup>
A: 1.0 × 10<sup>-14</sup>

Q: What is the [H<sub>3</sub>O<sup>+</sup>] in a solution with [OH<sup>-</sup>] = 1 × 10<sup>-12</sup> M?
- 1 × 10<sup>-12</sup> M
- 1 × 10<sup>2</sup> M
- 1 × 10<sup>-7</sup> M
- 1 × 10<sup>-8</sup> M
- 1 × 10<sup>-2</sup> M
A: 1 × 10<sup>-2</sup> M

Q: What is the [OH<sup>-</sup>] in a solution that has a [H<sub>3</sub>O<sup>+</sup>] = 1 × 10<sup>-6</sup> M?
- 1 × 10<sup>-2</sup> M
- 1 × 10<sup>-6</sup> M
- 1 × 10<sup>-8</sup> M
- 1 × 10<sup>-10</sup> M
- 1 × 10<sup>-12</sup> M
A: 1 × 10<sup>-8</sup> M

Q: What is the pH of a solution with [H<sub>3</sub>O<sup>+</sup>] = 1 × 10<sup>-9</sup> M?
- 1.0 × 10<sup>-5</sup>
- -9.0
- 5.0
- -5.0
- 9.0
A: 9.0

Q: What is the pH of a solution with [OH<sup>-</sup>] = 1 × 10<sup>-4</sup> M?
- 10.0
- -10.0
- 4.0
- -4.0
- 1.0 × 10<sup>-10</sup>
A: 10.0

Q: The [H<sub>3</sub>O<sup>+</sup>] of a solution with pH = 2.0 is ________.
- 10 M
- -10 M
- 1 × 10<sup>2</sup> M
- 1 × 10<sup>-2</sup> M
- 1 × 10<sup>-12</sup> M
A: 1 × 10<sup>-2</sup> M

Q: The [H<sub>3</sub>O<sup>+</sup>] of a solution with pH = 8.7 is ________.
- 8.7 M
- 5.3 M
- 2 × 10<sup>-9</sup> M
- 8.7 × 10<sup>-1</sup> M
- 5 × 10<sup>-6</sup> M
A: 2 × 10<sup>-9</sup> M

Q: A solution with [ OH<sup>-</sup>] of 5 × 10<sup>-3 </sup> has a pH of ________.
- 2.3
- -2.3
- 11.7
- 7.0
- 5.0
A: 11.7

Q: The [H<sub>3</sub>O<sup>+</sup>] of a solution with pH = 9.7 is ________.
- 9.7 M
- 1 × 10<sup>9.7</sup> M
- 2 × 10<sup>-10</sup> M
- 5 × 10<sup>-5</sup> M
- 9.7 × 10<sup>-1</sup> M
A: 2 × 10<sup>-10</sup> M

Q: An acid and base react to form a salt and water in a(n) ________ reaction.
- ionization
- dissociation
- oxidation
- neutralization
- reduction
A: neutralization

Q: In a neutralization reaction ________.
- two acids react to form water
- water and a salt react to form an acid and a base
- an acid and a salt react to form water and a base
- a base and a salt react to form water and an acid
- an acid and a base react to form a salt and water
A: an acid and a base react to form a salt and water

Q: When an acid reacts with a metal like Al, the products are ________.
- water and a base
- water and a salt
- water and carbon dioxide
- a salt and carbon dioxide
- a salt and hydrogen
A: a salt and hydrogen

Q: Which of the following is the correctly balanced equation for the complete neutralization of H<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub> by <br/>Ca(OH)<sub>2</sub>?
- H<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub> (<i>aq</i>) + Ca(OH)<sub>2</sub>(<i>s</i>) <img align="middle" height="17" width="13" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u8594.gif"/> CaHPO<sub>4</sub>(<i>aq</i>) + 2H<sub>2</sub>O(<i>l)</i>
- 3H<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub> (<i>aq</i>) + Ca(OH)<sub>2</sub>(<i>s</i>) <img align="middle" height="17" width="13" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u8594.gif"/> Ca<sub>3</sub>(PO<sub>4</sub>)<sub>2</sub>(<i>aq</i>) + 5H<sub>2</sub>O(<i>l)</i>
- H<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub>(<i>aq</i>) + Ca(OH)<sub>2</sub>(<i>s</i>) <img align="middle" height="17" width="13" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u8594.gif"/> Ca<sub>3</sub>(PO<sub>4</sub>)<sub>2</sub>(<i>aq</i>) + H<sub>2</sub>O(<i>l)</i>
- 2H<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub>(<i>aq</i>) + 3Ca(OH)<sub>2</sub>(<i>s</i>) <img align="middle" height="17" width="13" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u8594.gif"/> Ca<sub>3</sub>(PO<sub>4</sub>)<sub>2</sub>(<i>aq</i>) + 6H<sub>2</sub>O(<i>l)</i>
- 4H<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub>(<i>aq</i>) + 6Ca(OH)<sub>2</sub>(<i>s</i>) <img align="middle" height="17" width="13" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u8594.gif"/> 2Ca<sub>3</sub>(PO<sub>4</sub>)<sub>2</sub>(<i>aq</i>) + 12H<sub>2</sub>O(<i>l)</i>
A: 2H<sub>3</sub>PO<sub>4</sub>(<i>aq</i>) + 3Ca(OH)<sub>2</sub>(<i>s</i>) <img align="middle" height="17" width="13" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u8594.gif"/> Ca<sub>3</sub>(PO<sub>4</sub>)<sub>2</sub>(<i>aq</i>) + 6H<sub>2</sub>O(<i>l)</i>

Q: The neutralization reaction between Al(OH)<sub>3</sub> and HNO<sub>3</sub> produces the salt with the formula ________.
- H<sub>2</sub>O
- AlNO<sub>3</sub>
- AlH<sub>2</sub>
- Al(NO<sub>3</sub>)<sub>3</sub>
- NO<sub>3</sub>OH
A: Al(NO<sub>3</sub>)<sub>3</sub>

Q: Which of the following is a neutralization reaction?
- KCl (<i>aq</i>) + NaNO<sub>3</sub>(<i>aq</i>) <img align="middle" height="17" width="13" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u8594.gif"/> KNO<sub>3</sub>(<i>aq</i>) + NaCl(<i>aq</i>)
- HNO<sub>3</sub>(<i>aq</i>) + KOH(<i>aq</i>) <img align="middle" height="17" width="13" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u8594.gif"/> H<sub>2</sub>O (<i>l)</i> + KNO<sub>3</sub>(<i>aq</i>)
- H<sub>2</sub>O(<i>l)</i> + SO<sub>3</sub>(<i>g)</i> <img align="middle" height="17" width="13" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u8594.gif"/> H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub>(<i>aq</i>)
- 4Na(<i>s)</i> + O<sub>2</sub>(<i>g)</i> <img align="middle" height="17" width="13" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u8594.gif"/> 2Na<sub>2</sub>O(<i>s)</i>
- 2NO<sub>2</sub>(<i>g)</i> <img align="middle" height="17" width="13" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u8594.gif"/> 2NO(<i>g)</i> + O<sub>2</sub>(<i>g)</i>
A: HNO<sub>3</sub>(<i>aq</i>) + KOH(<i>aq</i>) <img align="middle" height="17" width="13" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u8594.gif"/> H<sub>2</sub>O (<i>l)</i> + KNO<sub>3</sub>(<i>aq</i>)

Q: 25.0 mL of 0.212 M NaOH is neutralized by 13.6 mL of an HCl solution. The molarity of the HCl solution is ________.
- 0.212 M
- 0.115 M
- 0.500 M
- 0.390 M
- 0.137 M
A: 0.390 M

Q: A 10.0 mL of 0.121 M H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4 </sub>is neutralized by 17.1 mL of KOH solution. The molarity of the KOH solution is ________.
- 0.207 M
- 0.414 M
- 0.0708 M
- 0.428 M
- 0.142 M
A: 0.142 M

Q: The function of a buffer is to ________.
- change color at the end point of a titration
- maintain the pH of a solution
- be a strong base
- maintain a neutral pH
- act as a strong acid
A: maintain the pH of a solution

Q: Normal blood pH is about ________.
- 6.8
- 7.0
- 7.2
- 7.4
- 7.6
A: 7.4

Q: In a buffer system of HF and its salt, NaF, ________.
- the HF neutralizes added acid
- the HF neutralizes added base
- the HF is not necessary
- the F<sup>-</sup> neutralizes added H<sub>2</sub>O
- the F<sup>-</sup> neutralizes added base
A: the HF neutralizes added base

Q: Which of the following is a buffer system?
- NaCl(aq<i>)</i> and NaNO<sub>3</sub>(aq<i>)</i>
- HCl(aq<i>)</i> and NaOH(aq<i>)</i>
- H<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub>(aq<i>)</i>and KHCO<sub>3</sub>(aq<i>)</i>
- NaCl(aq<i>)</i> and NaOH(aq<i>)</i>
- H<sub>2</sub>O(<i>l</i>) and HCl(aq<i>)</i>
A: H<sub>2</sub>CO<sub>3</sub>(aq<i>)</i>and KHCO<sub>3</sub>(aq<i>)</i>

Q: Which of the following could be a buffer?
- NaF(aq<i>)</i>
- HF(aq<i>)</i> + NaF(aq<i>)</i>
- HF(aq<i>)</i> + H<sub>2</sub>O(<i>l</i>)
- NaF(aq<i>)</i> + H<sub>2</sub>O(<i>l</i>)
- NaCl(aq<i>)</i> + HF(aq<i>)</i>
A: HF(aq<i>)</i> + NaF(aq<i>)</i>

Q: What is the name of the medical condition of an asthmatic patient with a blood pH of 7.30?
- respiratory acidosis
- respiratory alkalosis
- metabolic acidosis
- metabolic alkalosis
- diabetes mellitus
A: respiratory acidosis

Q: If lung problems like emphysema occur, the blood pH of the patient is expected to ________.
- saturate
- increase
- decrease
- stay the same
- concentrate
A: decrease

Q: When hyperventilation (rapid breathing) causes a patient to exhale large amounts of CO<sub>2</sub>, the blood pH rises in a condition called ________.
- metabolic acidosis
- metabolic alkalosis
- respiratory acidosis
- respiratory alkalosis
- pulmonary distress
A: respiratory alkalosis

Q: The name of H<sub>2</sub>SO<sub>4</sub> is hydrosulfuric acid.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: The conjugate base of H<sub>2</sub>O is H<sub>3</sub>O<sup>+</sup>.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: The conjugate base of HF is F<sup>-</sup>.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: HF is a strong acid.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: HBr is a strong acid.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: KOH is a strong base.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: When a system is at equilibrium, all the concentrations are 1 M.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: A system is at equilibrium when the rate of the forward and reverse reactions are equal.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: When more reactant is added to a system iat equilibrium, the reverse reaction is favored.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f37g1q10g1.gif"/>
- True
- False
A: False

Q: <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f37g1q11g1.gif"/>
- True
- False
A: False

Q: <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f37g1q12g1.gif"/>
- True
- False
A: False

Q: An acidic solution has a pH less than 7.0.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: A solution with a pH greater than 7 is basic.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: For many reactions of acids with bases, the resulting products are a salt and water.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Strong acids react with Zn metal to produce H<sub>2</sub> gas.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: If the carbon dioxide level in the blood is too high, more carbonic acid is produced, and this results in the condition termed acidosis.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Alkalosis is the blood condition in which the blood pH is higher than normal.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: A buffer is a solution that tends to maintain a neutral pH.
- True
- False
A: False

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Q: Which of the following is true of nonane, C<sub>9</sub>H<sub>20</sub>, which has a density of 0.79 g/mL, melts at -51 °C, and boils at 151 °C?
- Nonane is soluble in water.
- Nonane is a gas at room temperature.
- Nonane is a solid at room temperature.
- Nonane does not undergo combustion.
- Nonane floats on the surface of water.
A: Nonane floats on the surface of water.

Q: A formula that shows the arrangement of all bonds in a molecule is called a(n) ________.
- molecular formula
- expanded structural formula
- condensed structural formula
- condensed molecular formula
- isomeric formula
A: expanded structural formula

Q: In the three-dimensional structure of methane, CH<sub>4</sub>, the hydrogen atoms attached to a carbon atom are aligned ________.
- in a straight line
- at the corners of a square
- at the corners of a tetrahedron
- at the corners of a rectangle
- at the corners of a cube
A: at the corners of a tetrahedron

Q: A hydrocarbon contains only the elements ________.
- hydrogen and oxygen
- carbon and oxygen
- carbon and hydrogen
- carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen
- carbon, hydrogen, and nitrogen
A: carbon and hydrogen

Q: Which of the following is not typical of most hydrocarbons?
- high melting point
- poor solubility in water
- low boiling point
- covalent bonding
- high flammability
A: high melting point

Q: Organic chemistry is the study of the chemistry of compounds of ________.
- oxygen
- hydrogen
- living things
- polymers
- carbon
A: carbon

Q: How many valence electrons does carbon have?
- one
- two
- three
- four
- five
A: four

Q: Carbon atoms always have how many covalent bonds?
- one
- two
- three
- four
- five
A: four

Q: The carbon atoms in saturated hydrocarbons ________.
- have only single bonds
- contain at least one double bond
- contain at least one triple bond
- contain a benzene ring
- contain both a double and a triple bond
A: have only single bonds

Q: An organic compound composed of carbon and hydrogen connected only by single bonds is an ________.
- alkane
- alkene
- alkyne
- aromatic compound
- alcohol
A: alkane

Q: Which of these formulas is the expanded structural formula for an alkane with three carbon atoms?
- C<sub>3</sub>H<sub>6</sub><br/>
- C<sub>3</sub>H<sub>8</sub><br/>
- CH<sub>3</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>2</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>3</sub><br/>
- C<img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/> C<img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/> C<br/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f39g1q11g1.gif"/>
A: <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f39g1q11g1.gif"/>

Q: What is the condensed structural formula for an alkane with four carbon atoms?
- CH<sub>3</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57349.gif"/>CH<img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>3</sub>
- CH<sub>3</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>2</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>2</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>3</sub>
- C<sub>4</sub>H<sub>10</sub>
- C<img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>C<img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>C<img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>C
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f39g1q12g1.gif"/>
A: CH<sub>3</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>2</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>2</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>3</sub>

Q: What is the IUPAC name of the continuous chain alkane with six carbon atoms?
- butane
- pentane
- hexane
- heptane
- octane
A: hexane

Q: What is the IUPAC name of this compound?<br/> <br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f39g1q14g1.gif"/><br/>
- hexane
- heptane
- octane
- butane
- pentane
A: heptane

Q: What is the IUPAC name of this compound? <br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f39g1q15g1.gif"/><br/>
- pentane
- hexane
- heptane
- octane
- methylbutane
A: pentane

Q: What is the IUPAC name of CH<sub>3</sub>- CH<sub>2</sub>- CH<sub>2</sub>- CH<sub>3</sub>?
- ethane
- propane
- butane
- pentane
- hexane
A: butane

Q: Hydrocarbons are the primary constituents of ________.
- drugs
- food flavors
- fuels
- fruit juices
- disinfectants
A: fuels

Q: The skeletal formula shown is that of ________.<br/><br/><img align="middle" height="19" width="125" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f39g1q18g1.jpg"/><br/>
- butane
- pentane
- hexane
- heptane
- octane
A: heptane

Q: A cycloalkane ________.
- has two fewer carbon atoms than the corresponding alkane
- has two fewer hydrogen atoms than the corresponding alkane
- contains - CH<sub>3</sub> groups joined by single bonds
- always contains a three carbon ring
- has no hydrogen atoms
A: has two fewer hydrogen atoms than the corresponding alkane

Q: The simplest cycloalkane has ________.
- one carbon atom
- two carbon atoms
- three carbon atoms
- four carbon atoms
- five carbon atoms
A: three carbon atoms

Q: What is the IUPAC name for a four-carbon continuous-chain alkane?
- methane
- ethane
- propane
- butane
- pentane
A: butane

Q: What is the IUPAC name for a five-carbon continuous-chain alkane?
- methane
- ethane
- propane
- butane
- pentane
A: pentane

Q: What is the mame for a six-carbon continuous-chain alkane?
- hexane
- heptane
- octane
- nonane
- decane
A: hexane

Q: What is the IUPAC name for a seven-carbon continuous-chain alkane?
- hexane
- heptane
- octane
- nonane
- decane
A: heptane

Q: What is the IUPAC name for an eight-carbon continuous-chain alkane?
- hexane
- heptane
- octane
- nonane
- decane
A: octane

Q: What is the IUPAC name of the nine-carbon continuous-chain alkane?
- hexane
- heptane
- octane
- nonane
- decane
A: nonane

Q: What is the IUPAC name for a ten-carbon continuous-chain alkane?
- hexane
- heptane
- octane
- nonane
- decane
A: decane

Q: In a condensed structural formula, each carbon atom is ________.
- shown with all individual atoms and bonds drawn
- shown with only the other carbon atoms
- grouped with its bonded hydrogen atoms
- not explicitly shown
- written in lowercase letters
A: grouped with its bonded hydrogen atoms

Q: What type of compound is CH<sub>3</sub>-CH<sub>2</sub>-CH<sub>3</sub>?
- alkane
- branched alkane
- cycloalkane
- haloalkane
- isomer
A: alkane

Q: According to the IUPAC convention for chemical naming, which part of a hydrocarbon is selected as the main chain for a hydrocarbon chain?
- the most highly branched chain
- the shortest chain
- the longest chain drawn in a straight line
- the longest continuous chain, regardless of bends
- the chain with the most substituted carbons in it
A: the longest continuous chain, regardless of bends

Q: According to the IUPAC convention, alkyl group names should be located ________ of the name of the main chain.
- in front
- at the end
- in the middle
A: in front

Q: According to the IUPAC convention, alkyl substituents on a hydrocarbon chain should be listed in which order?
- alphabetical including prefixes
- alphabetical without considering prefixes
- in order with the substituent having the largest number of carbons first
- in order with the substituent having the smallest number of carbons first
- in order with the substituent having the largest total number of carbons first
A: alphabetical without considering prefixes

Q: When drawing a structural formula, the first step is to draw ________.
- the substituents
- the most highly substituted carbons
- the saturated carbons
- the main carbon chain
- the functional group
A: the main carbon chain

Q: What is the IUPAC name of the following compound?<br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f39g1q34g1.gif"/><br/>
- heptane
- methylhexane
- 5-methylhexane
- 2-methylhexane
- 2-methylpentane
A: 2-methylhexane

Q: Compounds that have the same molecular formula but different arrangements of atoms are called ________.
- isomers
- isotopes
- indicators
- isozymes
- isometrics
A: isomers

Q: Isomers are molecules that share the same formula and have ________.
- a different shape to the molecule
- the same arrangement of atoms within the molecule
- a different arrangement of atoms within the molecule
- identical boiling points
- the same shape in each molecule
A: a different arrangement of atoms within the molecule

Q: What is the IUPAC name of this compound?<br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f39g1q37g1.gif"/><br/>
- 1,1-dichlorobutane
- 1,2,-dichlorobutane
- 1,3-dichlorobutane
- 1,4-dichlorobutane
- dichlorobutane
A: 1,3-dichlorobutane

Q: What is the IUPAC name of this compound? <br/> <img align="middle" height="38" width="98" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f39g1q38g1.jpg"/>
- 2,2-dimethylpentane
- 2,4-dimethylpentane
- heptane
- 2-methylhexane
- 1,1,3-trimethylbutane
A: 2,4-dimethylpentane

Q: What is the IUPAC name of the alkyl group CH<sub>3</sub>- CH<sub>2</sub>- CH<sub>2</sub>-?
- propane
- methyl
- ethane
- ethyl
- propyl
A: propyl

Q: What is the IUPAC name for this alkane?<br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f39g1q40g1.gif"/><br/>
- 2-ethyl-3-methylpentane
- 4-ethyl-3-methylpentane
- 3, 4-dimethylhexane
- 2, 3-diethylbutane
- octane
A: 3, 4-dimethylhexane

Q: What is the IUPAC name of this alkane?<br/>  <br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f39g1q41g1.gif"/><br/>
- 4-ethyl-2,2-dimethylpentane
- 2-ethyl-4,4-dimethylpentane
- 2,2,4-trimethylhexane
- 2-ethyl-2,2-dimethylpentane
- 3,5,5-trimethylhexane
A: 2,2,4-trimethylhexane

Q: Which of the following compounds could have the molecular formula C<sub>7</sub>H<sub>16</sub>?
- hexane
- pentane
- 2-methylheptane
- 2,3-dimethylpentane
- 3-ethylhexane
A: 2,3-dimethylpentane

Q: <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f39g1q43g1.gif"/>
- pentane
- methylpentane
- 2-methylpentane
- 4-methylpentane
- hexane
A: 2-methylpentane

Q: <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f39g1q44g1.gif"/>
- hexane
- dimethylbutane
- 3,3-dimethylbutane
- 2,2-dimethylbutane
- 2-dimethylbutane
A: 2,2-dimethylbutane

Q: Which of the following pairs of formulas represent isomers?
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f39g1q45g1.gif"/><br/>
- CH<sub>3</sub> - CH<sub>2</sub> - CH<sub>2</sub> - CH<sub>3</sub>  and CH<sub>3</sub> - CH<sub>2</sub> - CH<sub>3</sub><br/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f39g1q45g2.gif"/><br/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f39g1q45g3.gif"/><br/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f39g1q45g4.gif"/><br/>
A: <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f39g1q45g4.gif"/><br/>

Q: What is the name for a one-carbon alkyl substituent?
- methyl
- ethyl
- propyl
- butyl
- pentyl
A: methyl

Q: What is the name for a two-carbon saturated alkyl group?
- methyl
- ethyl
- propyl
- butyl
- pentyl
A: ethyl

Q: What is the name for a three-carbon saturated alkyl group?
- methyl
- ethyl
- propyl
- butyl
- pentyl
A: propyl

Q: What is the name for this three-carbon alkyl group?<br/>  <br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f39g1q49g1.gif"/><br/>
- propyl
- isopropyl
- butyl
- methyl
- ethyl
A: isopropyl

Q: The reaction of butane with oxygen is called ________.
- substitution
- addition
- neutralization
- combustion
- titration
A: combustion

Q: What is(are) the product(s) of the complete combustion of any hydrocarbon?
- CO only
- CO<sub>2</sub> only
- CO + H<sub>2</sub>O
- CO<sub>2</sub> + H<sub>2</sub>O
- H<sub>2</sub>O only
A: CO<sub>2</sub> + H<sub>2</sub>O

Q: The balanced equation for the complete combustion of C<sub>5</sub>H<sub>12</sub> will give which of these product(s)?
- CO<sub>2</sub> only
- C<sub>5</sub>H<sub>12</sub>O<sub>5</sub> only
- 5CO<sub>2</sub> + 5H<sub>2</sub>O
- 5CO<sub>2</sub> + 6H<sub>2</sub>O
- 10CO + 12H<sub>2</sub>O
A: 5CO<sub>2</sub> + 6H<sub>2</sub>O

Q: The complete combustion of 1 mole of pentane, C<sub>5</sub>H<sub>12</sub>, will require how many moles of oxygen, O<sub>2</sub>?
- 1 mole
- 2 moles
- 5 moles
- 6 moles
- 8 moles
A: 8 moles

Q: The reaction for the combustion of heptane is<br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f39g1q54g1.gif"/><br/><br/>How many liters of CO<sub>2</sub> at STP are produced from the complete combustion of 2.00 moles of heptane?
- 44.8 L
- 22.4 L
- 157 L
- 246 L
- 314 L
A: 314 L

Q: An alkene is an organic compound that contains a ________ bond.
- single
- double
- triple
- aromatic
- hydrogen
A: double

Q: An alkyne is an organic compound that contains a ________ bond.
- single
- double
- triple
- aromatic
- hydrogen
A: triple

Q: A hydrocarbon with a double bond is a(n) ________.
- alkane
- alkene
- alkyne
- alcohol
- saturated compound
A: alkene

Q: Alkenes and alkynes are called unsaturated compounds because ________.
- they have the maximum number of hydrogen atoms attached to each carbon in the compound
- they have fewer hydrogen atoms attached to the carbon chain than alkanes
- they have more hydrogen atoms attached to the carbon chain than alkanes
- they have more carbon atoms than alkanes
- they have fewer carbon atoms than alkanes
A: they have fewer hydrogen atoms attached to the carbon chain than alkanes

Q: Which of the compounds is a cycloalkene?
- CH<sub>2</sub> = CH-CH = CH<sub>2</sub><br/>
- <br/><img align="middle" height="58" width="64" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f39g1q59g1.jpg"/>
- CH<sub>3</sub>-CH = CH<sub>2<br/></sub>
- <br/><img align="middle" height="76" width="72" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f39g1q59g2.jpg"/>
- <br/><img align="middle" height="71" width="64" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f39g1q59g3.jpg"/>
A: <br/><img align="middle" height="76" width="72" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f39g1q59g2.jpg"/>

Q: An unsaturated compound always ________.
- is a cycloalkane
- contains a double bond
- contains a triple bond
- contains at least one double or triple bond
- contains only single bonds
A: contains at least one double or triple bond

Q: Which of the following compounds is an alkyne?
- CH<sub>3</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>2</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>3</sub>
- C<sub>3</sub>H<sub>6</sub>
- CH<sub>3</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>2</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>C<img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57351.gif"/>CH
- H<sub>2</sub>C<img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57349.gif"/>CH<img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57349.gif"/>CH<sub>2</sub>
- 2-pentene
A: CH<sub>3</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>2</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>C<img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57351.gif"/>CH

Q: What is the IUPAC name of the following compound?<br/> <img align="middle" height="37" width="120" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f39g1q62g1.jpg"/>
- 5-methyl-1-hexene
- 2-methyl-1-hexene
- 2-methyl-5-hexene
- 5-methyl-2-hexene
- 1-hexene
A: 5-methyl-1-hexene

Q: Organic compounds with carbon-carbon double or triple bonds are classified as ________.
- unsaturated compounds
- saturated compounds
- dilute solutions
- concentrated solutions
- substituted compounds
A: unsaturated compounds

Q: The IUPAC name of CH<sub>3</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH <img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57349.gif"/> CH<img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>3</sub> is ________.
- 2-butene
- 2-butane
- 1-butene
- butene
- 2-butyne
A: 2-butene

Q: When naming an alkene, the parent chain is the longest carbon chain ________.
- that does not contain the double bond
- regardless of whether or not it contains the double bond
- that contains at least one of the carbon atoms of the double bond
- that contains both atoms of the double bond
- that contains a branch
A: that contains both atoms of the double bond

Q: The IUPAC name for CH<sub>3</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>2</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>C <img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57351.gif"/> C<img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>3</sub> is ________.
- 3-pentyne
- 2-pentyne
- pentyne
- 1-methylbutyne
- 2-propene
A: 2-pentyne

Q: The IUPAC name for ethylene is ________.
- ethane
- cycloethane
- ethyne
- ethanene
- ethene
A: ethene

Q: Which one of the following compounds has the smallest number of hydrogen atoms?
- butyne
- 2-methylpropane
- butene
- 2-methybutane
- butane
A: butyne

Q: What is the IUPAC name for the following compound?<br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f39g1q69g1.gif"/><br/>
- 4-chloro-4,5-dimethyl-2-hexene
- 3-chloro-1,3,4-trimethyl-1-pentene
- 3-chloro-2,3-dimethyl-4-hexene
- 3-chloro-2,3,5-trimethyl-4-pentene
- 3-chloro-1,3,4,4-tetramethyl-1-butene
A: 4-chloro-4,5-dimethyl-2-hexene

Q: What is the condensed structural formula of the compound propene?
- CH<sub>3</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>2</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>3</sub>
- H<sub>3</sub>C <img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57349.gif"/> CH<sub>2</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>3</sub>
- H<sub>2</sub>C <img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57349.gif"/> C <img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57349.gif"/> CH<sub>2</sub>
- CH<sub>3</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH <img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57349.gif"/> CH<sub>2</sub>
- HC <img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57351.gif"/> C<img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>3</sub>
A: CH<sub>3</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH <img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57349.gif"/> CH<sub>2</sub>

Q: What is the condensed structural formula for the compound 3-hexene?
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f39g1q71g1.gif"/>
- CH<sub>2 </sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57349.gif"/> CH<img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>2</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>2</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>2</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>3</sub>
- CH<sub>3</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>2</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH <img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57349.gif"/> CH<img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>2</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>3</sub>
- CH<sub>3</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>2</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>2</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH <img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57349.gif"/> CH<img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>3</sub>
- CH<sub>3</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH <img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57349.gif"/> CH<img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>2</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>2</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>3</sub>
A: CH<sub>3</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>2</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH <img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57349.gif"/> CH<img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>2</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>3</sub>

Q: The compound 1-butyne contains ________.
- all single bonds
- a double bond
- a triple bond
- a ring structure
- a bromine atom
A: a triple bond

Q: Which of the following compounds is an alkene?
- CH<sub>3</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>2</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>3</sub>
- C<sub>3</sub>H<sub>8</sub>
- CH<sub>3</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>2</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>C<img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57351.gif"/>CH
- H<sub>2</sub>C<img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57349.gif"/>CH<img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>3</sub>
- cyclopentane
A: H<sub>2</sub>C<img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57349.gif"/>CH<img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>3</sub>

Q: Some alkenes have geometric (cis-trans) isomers because ________.
- the carbon atoms in the double bond cannot rotate
- each of the carbon atoms in the double bond has four different groups attached to it
- one of the carbon atoms in the double bond has two identical groups attached to it
- the carbon atoms in the double bond are free to rotate
- all of the carbon atoms in the compound are rigid and cannot rotate
A: the carbon atoms in the double bond cannot rotate

Q: Which of the following pairs of compounds are cis-trans isomers?
- <br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f39g1q75g1.gif"/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f39g1q75g2.gif"/>
- <br/><font size="+1"> </font><font size="+1">HC</font><font size="+1"><img align="middle" height="21" width="13" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57351.gif"/></font><font size="+1">C</font><font size="+1"><img align="middle" height="21" width="13" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/><font size="+1">CH</font><sub><font size="+1">3</font></sub></font><font size="+1"> and </font><font size="+1"><font size="+1">CH</font><sub><font size="+1">3</font></sub><img align="middle" height="21" width="13" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/></font><font size="+1">C</font><font size="+1"><img align="middle" height="21" width="13" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57351.gif"/></font><font size="+1">CH</font><br/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f39g1q75g3.gif"/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f39g1q75g4.gif"/>
A: <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f39g1q75g4.gif"/>

Q: What is the IUPAC name of the compound shown below?<br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f39g1q76g1.gif"/>
- 2-pentene
- <i>trans</i>-2-pentene
- <i>trans</i>-3-pentene
- <i>cis</i>-2-pentene
- <i>cis</i>-3-pentene
A: <i>trans</i>-2-pentene

Q: What is the IUPAC name of the compound shown below?<br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f39g1q77g1.gif"/>
- 3-hexene
- 3-hexyne
- <i>trans</i>-3-hexene
- <i>cis</i>-2-hexene
- <i>cis</i>-3-hexene
A: <i>cis</i>-3-hexene

Q: Insects communicate with chemicals called ________.
- markers
- isomers
- signals
- pheromones
- scents
A: pheromones

Q: The reaction of hydrogen (H<sub>2</sub>) and propene using a platinum catalyst is called ________.
- combustion
- substitution
- addition
- neutralization
- condensation
A: addition

Q: The hydrogenation of an alkene gives a(n) ________.
- alkane
- alkene
- alkyne
- benzene
- isomer
A: alkane

Q: What is the condensed structural formula for the product of the reaction of 2-butene with water and a strong acid catalyst?<br/>
- CH<sub>3</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57349.gif"/>CH<img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>3</sub> <br/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f39g1q81g1.gif"/><br/>
- CH<sub>3</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>2</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>2</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>3</sub><br/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f39g1q81g2.gif"/><br/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f39g1q81g3.gif"/><br/>
A: <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f39g1q81g3.gif"/><br/>

Q: What is the condensed structural formula for the product of the hydrogenation of 2-butene using a platinum catalyst?<br/>
- CH<sub>3</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH = CH<img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>3</sub> <br/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f39g1q82g1.gif"/><br/>
- CH<sub>3</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>2</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>2</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>3</sub><br/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f39g1q82g2.gif"/><br/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f39g1q82g3.gif"/><br/>
A: CH<sub>3</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>2</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>2</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>3</sub><br/>

Q: The reaction of an alkene and water in the presence of an acid catalyst to produce an alcohol is called ________.
- hydrolysis
- alkoholysis
- halogenation
- hydration
- hydrohydration
A: hydration

Q: What is the product of the reaction shown below?<br/><br/> CH<sub>3</sub>- CH<sub>2</sub>- CH = CH<sub>2</sub> + HOH <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f39g1q84g1.gif"/><br/><br/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f39g1q84g2.gif"/><br/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f39g1q84g3.gif"/><br/>
- CH<sub>3</sub> - CH<sub>2</sub> - CH<sub>2</sub> - CH<sub>2</sub> OH<br/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f39g1q84g4.gif"/><br/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f39g1q84g5.gif"/><br/>
A: <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f39g1q84g3.gif"/><br/>

Q: The structural formula of benzene is often represented as a ________.
- ring of five carbon atoms
- ring of six carbon atoms with six double bonds
- ring of six carbon atoms with a circle in the center
- cycloalkane
- cycloalkyne
A: ring of six carbon atoms with a circle in the center

Q: A compound that contains the ring structure of benzene is called a(n) ________.
- alkane
- cycloalkane
- alkyl group
- aromatic compound
- hydrocarbon
A: aromatic compound

Q: The compound below is named ________.<br/><br/><img align="middle" height="71" width="64" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f39g1q87g1.jpg"/>
- cyclohexane
- cyclohexene
- cyclohexyne
- benzene
- cyclobenzene
A: benzene

Q: What is the molecular formula of benzene?
- C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>4</sub>
- C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>6</sub>
- C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>8</sub>
- C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>10</sub>
- C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>12</sub>
A: C<sub>6</sub>H<sub>6</sub>

Q: Which of the compounds below is aromatic?
- CH<sub>2</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57349.gif"/>CH<img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>C<img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57349.gif"/>CH<sub>2</sub>
- <br/><img align="middle" height="58" width="64" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f39g1q89g1.jpg"/>
- CH<sub>3</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>C<img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57349.gif"/>CH<sub>2</sub>
- <br/><img align="middle" height="76" width="72" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f39g1q89g2.jpg"/>
- <br/><img align="middle" height="71" width="64" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f39g1q89g3.jpg"/>
A: <br/><img align="middle" height="71" width="64" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f39g1q89g3.jpg"/>

Q: All of the carbon-carbon bonds in benzene are ________.
- composed of only two types, single and double
- identical
- double bonds
- single bonds
- circular bonds
A: identical

Q: Organic chemistry is the study of the chemistry of compounds that contain primarily carbon and hydrogen.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Shampoos, perfumes, and plastics are organic compounds.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: There are vast numbers of organic compounds.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Carbon has six valence electrons.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: Methane has a tetrahedral structure.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Organic compounds are always highly water soluble.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: Most organic compounds are flammable.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Organic compounds usually have low melting and boiling points.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Organic liquids are usually less dense than water.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Organic compounds usually contain carbon, hydrogen and metal atoms.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: Most medicines are organic molecules.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Organic compounds can only be made by living things because a "vital force" is needed for their production.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: Octane is a seven carbon linear alkane.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: Hexane has six carbon atoms.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: When naming an alkane, the main chain is the longest continuous carbon chain regardless of bends.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Isomers have the same molecular formula.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: The first four linear alkyl substituent groups are named methyl, ethyl, propyl, and butyl.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Mineral oil is a liquid hydrocarbon used as a laxative.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Solid alkanes are found on the surface of many fruits and vegetables.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Light-induced cis-trans isomerization is an important step in vision.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Propylene is used to induce ripening in fruits.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: In a cis alkene, the groups are on the same side of the double bond.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: In a trans alkene, the groups are on the same side of the double bond.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: All alkenes show cis-trans isomerism.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: The compound shown below is <i>cis</i>-3-hexene.<br/><img align="middle" height="41" width="115" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f40g1q25g1.jpg"/>
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Hydrogenation is used to convert alkenes to alkanes.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Hydrogenation of unsaturated vegetable oils raises the melting point.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Water can be added to alkenes to produce acids.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: When hydrogen is added to 1-pentene in the presence of a platinum catalyst, the product is 1-pentyne.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: One essential building block of aspirin, ibuprofen, and acetaminophen is the benzene ring.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: All polycyclic aromatic compounds cause cancer.
- True
- False
A: False

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Q: Which one of the following compounds is an alcohol?
- <br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f42g1q1g1.gif"/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f42g1q1g2.gif"/><br/>
- CH<sub>3</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57349.gif"/>CH<img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>2</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>3</sub><br/>
- CH<sub>3</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>2</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>O<img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>2</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>3</sub><br/>
- CH<sub>3</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>S<img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>H<br/>
A: <br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f42g1q1g1.gif"/>

Q: The compound CH<sub>3</sub>CH<sub>2</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>SH is in the organic family known as ________.
- ethers
- thiols
- alcohols
- sulfides
- amino acids
A: thiols

Q: A phenol has an -OH group bonded to a(n) ________.
- singly substituted or unsubstituted carbon
- disubstituted carbon
- trisubstituted carbon
- carbon. in a benzene ring
- tetrasubstituted carbon
A: carbon. in a benzene ring

Q: Thiols have structures similar to alcohols except that they contain ________.
- three alcohol groups
- more than one carbon
- sulfur in place of oxygen in the functional group
- lithium in place of oxygen in the functional group
- nitrogen in place of oxygen in the functional group
A: sulfur in place of oxygen in the functional group

Q: Thiols are strong-smelling compounds responsible for ________.
- fruity odors
- sharp odors
- flowery odors
- skunky or bad smelling odors
- salty odors
A: skunky or bad smelling odors

Q: What is the IUPAC name of this compound?<br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f42g1q6g1.gif"/>
- butanol
- propanol
- 2-propanol
- 2-methylbutanol
- 2-methyl-2-propanol
A: 2-methyl-2-propanol

Q: What is the IUPAC name for this compound?<br/><br/><img align="middle" height="107" width="64" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f42g1q7g1.jpg"/>
- cyclopentanol
- cyclohexanol
- cyclobenzenol
- phenol
- glycerol
A: phenol

Q: What is the common name of this compound?<br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f42g1q8g1.gif"/><img align="middle" height="39" width="113" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f42g1q8g2.jpg"/>
- cyclopentyl ethyl ether
- cyclopentyl ethyl ketone
- 1-cyclopropyl-1-ethylalcohol
- ethylcyclopentanol
- 3-cyclopentylethanol
A: cyclopentyl ethyl ether

Q: The common name for the compound CH<sub>3</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>2</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>2</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/> O<img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>2</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>3</sub> is ________.
- 3-pentanol
- ethyl propyl ether
- 3-hexanol
- 3-ether pentane
- ethyl propyl ketone
A: ethyl propyl ether

Q: The common name of CH<sub>3</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>2</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>O<img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>2</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>3</sub> is ________.
- dimethyl ether
- diethyl ether
- 2-etherbutane
- butyl ether
- dibutyl ether
A: diethyl ether

Q: Alcohols contain which functional group?
- amine
- amide
- hydroxyl
- thiol
A: hydroxyl

Q: Which of the following compounds contains an alcohol functional group?
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f42g1q12g1.gif"/><br/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f42g1q12g2.gif"/><br/>
- CH<sub>3</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>2</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>O<img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>2</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>3</sub><br/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f42g1q12g3.gif"/><br/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f42g1q12g4.gif"/><br/>
A: <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f42g1q12g1.gif"/><br/>

Q: Which of the following compounds contains an ether functional group?
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f42g1q13g1.gif"/><br/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f42g1q13g2.gif"/><br/>
- CH<sub>3</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>2</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>O<img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>2</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>3</sub><br/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f42g1q13g3.gif"/><br/>
- CH<sub>3</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>O<img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>H<br/>
A: CH<sub>3</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>2</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>O<img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>2</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>3</sub><br/>

Q: A primary alcohol has a hydroxyl group bonded to a(n) ________.
- carbon bonded to one alkyl group
- carbon bonded to two alkyl groups
- carbon bonded to three alkyl groups
- aromatic carbon
A: carbon bonded to one alkyl group

Q: A secondary alcohol has a hydroxyl group bonded to a(n) ________.
- carbon bonded to one alkyl group
- carbon bonded to two alkyl groups
- carbon bonded to three alkyl groups
- aromatic carbon.
A: carbon bonded to two alkyl groups

Q: Atertiary alcohol has a hydroxyl group bonded to a(n) ________.
- carbon bonded to one alkyl group
- carbon bonded to two alkyl groups
- carbon bonded to three alkyl groups
- aromatic carbon.
A: carbon bonded to three alkyl groups

Q: Which of the following compounds is a weak acid?
- ethanol
- ethanal
- phenol
- hexanol
- acetone
A: phenol

Q: The alcohol in this list that would be most soluble in water is ________.
- ethanol
- 1-octanol
- 1-pentanol
- 1-hexanol
- 1-heptanol
A: ethanol

Q: What kind of attractive forces do alcohols form between individual molecules?
- oxygen bonds
- hydrogen bonds
- single bonds
- carbon bonds
- ionic bonds
A: hydrogen bonds

Q: Which of the following compounds is a secondary alcohol?
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f42g1q20g1.gif"/><br/>
- CH<sub>3</sub>-O-H<br/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f42g1q20g2.gif"/><br/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f42g1q20g3.gif"/><br/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f42g1q20g4.gif"/><br/>
A: <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f42g1q20g4.gif"/><br/>

Q: In a tertiary alcohol, how many alkyl groups are attached to the carbon atom bonded to the -OH group?
- none
- one
- two
- three
- four
A: three

Q: The skeletal formula represents what type of alcohol? <br/> <img align="middle" height="59" width="91" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f42g1q22g1.jpg"/>
- primary
- secondary
- tertiary
- quaternary
- none
A: primary

Q: The skeletal formula represents what type of alcohol? <br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f42g1q23g1.gif"/><img align="middle" height="48" width="90" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f42g1q23g2.jpg"/>
- primary
- secondary
- tertiary
- quaternary
- none
A: tertiary

Q: Which of the following compounds contains an aldehyde functional group?
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f42g1q24g1.gif"/><br/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f42g1q24g2.gif"/><br/>
- CH<sub>3</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>2</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>O<img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>2</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>3</sub><br/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f42g1q24g3.gif"/><br/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f42g1q24g4.gif"/><br/>
A: <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f42g1q24g2.gif"/><br/>

Q: Which of the following compounds contains a ketone functional group?
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f42g1q25g1.gif"/><br/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f42g1q25g2.gif"/><br/>
- CH<sub>3</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>2</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>O<img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>2</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>3</sub><br/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f42g1q25g3.gif"/><br/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f42g1q25g4.gif"/><br/>
A: <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f42g1q25g3.gif"/><br/>

Q: What is the IUPAC name for this compound?<br/>  <br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f42g1q26g1.gif"/><br/>
- methyl aldehyde
- 1-ethanaldehyde
- 1-ethanone
- ethanal
- methanal
A: ethanal

Q: Three functional groups found in this compound are ________.<br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f42g1q27g1.gif"/><img align="middle" height="146" width="121" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f42g1q27g2.jpg"/>
- alcohol, aromatic, and ether
- alcohol, aldehyde, and ether
- alcohol, ether, and ketone
- aldehyde, ether, and carboxylic acid
- cycloalkene, alcohol, and carboxylic acid
A: alcohol, ether, and ketone

Q: In all aldehydes except formaldehyde, the carbonyl group is bonded to how many hydrogen atoms?
- one
- two
- three
- four
A: one

Q: In a ketone, the carbonyl group is bonded to how many hydrogen atoms?
- none
- one
- two
- three
- four
A: none

Q: The carbonyl group consists of ________.
- carbon-oxygen-hydrogen attached by single bonds
- carbon and oxygen attached by a single bond
- carbon and oxygen attached by a double bond
- carbon and oxygen attached by a triple bond
- a carbon-oxygen-carbon attached by single bonds
A: carbon and oxygen attached by a double bond

Q: In the IUPAC naming system, a ketone is named by replacing the -e in the corresponding alkane name with ________.
- yne
- ene
- al
- one
- ol
A: one

Q: In the IUPAC naming system, an aldehyde is named by replacing the <i>e</i> of the name of the corresponding alkane with ________.
- yne
- ene
- al
- one
- ol
A: al

Q: Acetone is a ketone commonly used as a ________.
- preservative
- flavoring agent
- fuel
- solvent
- drain cleaner
A: solvent

Q: The common name for butanone, a readily available solvent, is ________.
- methyl acetone
- ethyl methyl ketone
- <i><img align="middle" height="17" width="7" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u946.gif"/></i>-butanone
- butyl ketone
- butyl ether
A: ethyl methyl ketone

Q: Formaldehyde is used industrially to make ________.
- polymers
- insulating materials
- carpeting
- All of these
- None of these
A: All of these

Q: Formalin is ________.
- another name for formaldehyde.
- a plastic.
- an aqueous solution of formaldehyde.
- an excellent solvent.
- a polymer.
A: an aqueous solution of formaldehyde.

Q: What is the product when this compound undergoes gentle oxidation?<br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f42g1q37g1.gif"/><br/>
- hexanal
- 2,2-dimethylbutanal
- 2,2-dimethyl-4-butanone
- 3,3-dimethyl-1-butanone
- 3,3-dimethylbutanal
A: 3,3-dimethylbutanal

Q: The dehydration of an alcohol in the presence of a strong acid yields ________.
- an alkane.
- an alkene.
- a ketone.
- an alcohol.
- an aldehyde.
A: an alkene.

Q: The dehydration product of CH<sub>3</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>2</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>2</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>O<img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>H in the presence of acid is ________.
- CH<sub>2 </sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57349.gif"/>C<img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57349.gif"/> CH<sub>2</sub>
- cyclopropane
- cyclopropene
- propene
- propyne
A: propene

Q: When 2-methyl-2-butanol undergoes dehydration in acid, one product is ________.
- 2-methyl-2-butene
- 2-methylbutanone
- 2-pentanone
- 2-methylbutanal
- hexene
A: 2-methyl-2-butene

Q: In the oxidation of an alcohol to a ketone, there is ________.
- a loss of hydrogen
- a loss of oxygen
- a loss of carbon
- a gain of hydrogen
- a gain of oxygen
A: a loss of hydrogen

Q: What classification of alcohol undergoes oxidation to yield a ketone?
- primary alcohol
- both primary and secondary alcohols
- secondary alcohol
- all classes of alcohols
- both secondary and tertiary alcohols
A: secondary alcohol

Q: Tertiary alcohols cannot be oxidized because ________.
- there are no oxygen atoms to remove from the alcohol carbon
- there are no hydrogen atoms attached to the alcohol carbon
- the alcohol carbon is bonded to four groups so no oxygen can be added to it
- the alcohol carbon is bonded to four groups so no hydrogen can be added to it
- the alcohol carbon is too electronegative to have hydrogen removed from it
A: there are no hydrogen atoms attached to the alcohol carbon

Q: What classification of alcohol is resistant to oxidation?
- primary
- secondary
- tertiary
- quaternary
- none
A: tertiary

Q: In the dehydration of an alcohol to an alkene, what is produced in addition to the alkene?
- water
- hydrogen
- oxygen
- carbon dioxide
- carbon monoxide
A: water

Q: When a primary alcohol is strongly oxidized, the product is ________.
- another alcohol
- a carboxylic acid
- an aldehyde
- an alkane
- a ketone
A: a carboxylic acid

Q: Secondary alcohols are oxidized to ________.
- carboxylic acids
- ketones
- aldehydes
- esters
- ethers
A: ketones

Q: Tertiary alcohols are oxidized to ________.
- secondary alcohols
- ketones
- aldehydes
- carboxylic acids
- None of these
A: None of these

Q: Thiols can be oxidized to ________.
- disulfides
- aldehydes
- ketones
- carboxylic acids
- thioethers
A: disulfides

Q: An aldehyde forms a carboxylic acid by ________.
- oxidation
- reduction
- hydrolysis
- neutralization
- hydrogenation
A: oxidation

Q: Which of the following compounds would give a positive Tollens' test?
- methanol
- acetone
- diethyl ether
- phenol
- butanal
A: butanal

Q: Alcohols, ethers, and phenols contain only carbon-oxygen only single bonds.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Ethyl ether has been replaced by halogenated anesthetics, which have fewer side effects.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Ethers can only be straight chain compounds.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: This is the skeletal formula for an ether. <br/><img align="middle" height="48" width="90" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f43g1q4g1.jpg"/>
- True
- False
A: False

Q: Thiols contain the -SH group.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Alcohols can form hydrogen bonds.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Phenol was formerly used as an antiseptic.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Alcohols form hydrogen bonds; this accounts for their higher solubility when compared to similar-sized alkanes.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: The oxygen atom in alcohols decreases water solubility of the molecule.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: Phenols behave as weak acids in water.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: All aldehydes have a carbonyl carbon bonded to at least two hydrogens.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: In a ketone, the carbonyl group is bonded to two alkyl or aromatic groups.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: This compound is an aldehyde.<br/><img align="middle" height="48" width="81" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f43g1q13g1.jpg"/>
- True
- False
A: True

Q: The carbonyl group does not have a dipole.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: The suffix <i>-one</i> indicates an aldehyde in the IUPAC system of naming.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: The suffix<i> -al</i> indicates an aldehyde in the IUPAC system of naming.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Acetone is a three-carbon aldehyde.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: Acetone is sometimes produced in pathological conditions such as diabetes or following extreme diets.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Formaldehyde is used in solution as a germicide and preservative.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: A secondary alcohol can be easily oxidized to a carboxylic acid.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: This alcohol can be oxidized to a ketone. <br/><img align="middle" height="48" width="90" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f43g1q21g1.jpg"/>
- True
- False
A: False

Q: Alcohols can be dehydrated to form alkenes.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Primary alcohols can be oxidized to either aldehydes or ketones.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: Secondary alcohols can be oxidized to ketones.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: A tertiary alcohol can be easily oxidized to a carboxylic acid.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: Ketones will give a positive Tollens' test.
- True
- False
A: False

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Q: A carbohydrate that gives two molecules when it is completely hydrolyzed is known as a ________.
- monosaccharide
- disaccharide
- polysaccharide
- starch
- trisaccharide
A: disaccharide

Q: Which group of carbohydrates cannot be hydrolyzed to give simpler carbohydrates?
- monosaccharides
- disaccharides
- trisaccharides
- tetrasaccharides
- polysaccharides
A: monosaccharides

Q: A monosaccharide that consists of 5 carbon atoms, one of which is in a ketone group, is classified as a(n) ________.
- aldotetrose
- aldopentose
- aldohexose
- ketotetrose
- ketopentose
A: ketopentose

Q: A monosaccharide that contains 4 carbon atoms, one of which is in an aldehyde group, is classified as a(n) ________.
- aldopentose
- aldohexose
- ketopentose
- aldotetrose
- ketotetrose
A: aldotetrose

Q: A monosaccharide that contains 6 carbon atoms, one of which is in an aldehyde group, is classified as a(n) ________.
- aldopentose
- aldohexose
- ketopentose
- aldotetrose
- ketotetrose
A: aldohexose

Q: Ribulose has the following structural formula. To what carbohydrate class does ribulose belong?<br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f45g1q6g1.gif"/><br/>
- aldotetrose
- aldopentose
- ketotetrose
- ketopentose
- ketohexose
A: ketopentose

Q: In the carbon cycle, carbon dioxide and water are converted to glucose and oxygen by ________.
- large animals
- insects
- mushrooms
- green plants
- earthworms
A: green plants

Q: The breakdown of glucose to chemical energy for the cells to do work is an example of ________.
- oxidation
- respiration
- reduction
- anabolism
- mutarotation
A: oxidation

Q: Photosynthesis uses ________ as an energy source.
- glucose
- carbon dioxide
- chlorophyll
- oxygen
- sunlight
A: sunlight

Q: Fructose does not undergo hydrolysis because it is a ________.
- aldose
- hexose
- reducing sugar
- monosaccharide
- disaccharide
A: monosaccharide

Q: Achiral compounds are those which ________.
- have no "handedness"
- have different mirror images
- are nonsuperimposable
- have the same formula but different structures
- have a carbon attached to four different atoms
A: have no "handedness"

Q: Stereoisomers that are nonsuperimposable mirror images of each other are known as ________.
- enantiomers
- achiral isomers
- superimposable isomers
- anomers
- Fischer projections
A: enantiomers

Q: Which of the following objects is chiral? Assume that each object has no markings or printing.
- an pencil
- a baseball bat
- a glove
- a hockey puck
- a drinking glass
A: a glove

Q: Which of the following compounds is chiral?
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f45g1q14g1.gif"/><br/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f45g1q14g2.gif"/><br/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f45g1q14g3.gif"/><br/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f45g1q14g4.gif"/><br/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f45g1q14g5.gif"/><br/>
A: <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f45g1q14g3.gif"/><br/>

Q: An enantiomer is ________.
- a stereoisomer that is not a mirror image of another molecule
- a stereoisomer whose mirror image cannot be superimposed
- a diastereoisomer
- a constitutional isomer
- a geometric isomer
A: a stereoisomer whose mirror image cannot be superimposed

Q: Chirality occurs when stereoisomers have mirror images that are ________.
- superimposable
- the same
- not superimposable
- not visible to one another
- identical
A: not superimposable

Q: How many different substituents are required on a carbon atom for it to be chiral?
- one
- two
- three
- four
- Any number from 1 to 4; chiralty does not depend on substitution.
A: four

Q: Chiral drugs consist of only one enantiomer. The benefits of using a pure enantiomer, rather than a mixture, include ________.
- higher potency (lower total dose of drug)
- elimination of side effects
- reduced chances of drug interactions
- All of these
- None of these
A: All of these

Q: In the<font size="-1"> L</font>- isomer of a Fischer projection of a monosaccharide, the -OH group furthest from the carbonyl is written ________.
- on the left of the top chiral carbon
- on the right of the top chiral carbon
- on the left of the middle chiral carbon
- on the left of the bottom chiral carbon
- on the right of the bottom chiral carbon
A: on the left of the bottom chiral carbon

Q: One difference between<font size="-1"> D</font>-glucose and<font size="-1"> L</font>-glucose is ________.
- the open-chain form of <font size="-1">L</font>-glucose does not exist
- it is not possible to make <font size="-1">L</font>-glucose
- <font size="-1">L</font>-glucose has a 5-membered ring, and <font size="-1">D</font>-glucose has a 6-membered ring
- only <font size="-1">D</font>-glucose can act as a substrate in metabolic reactions
- <font size="-1">L</font>-glucose cannot form a closed structure
A: only <font size="-1">D</font>-glucose can act as a substrate in metabolic reactions

Q: The sugar also known as dextrose, and blood sugar is ________.
- glucose
- galactose
- fructose
- lactose
- sucrose
A: glucose

Q: Galactose is a ________.
- monosaccharide
- disaccharide
- trisaccharide
- polysaccharide
- phosphosaccharide
A: monosaccharide

Q: Galactosemia is the name of a metabolic disorder. In this disorder, an enzyme is missing that is needed to ________.
- make galactose from lactose
- make lactose from galactose
- convert galactose to glycogen
- convert galactose to glucose
- convert <i><img align="middle" height="17" width="8" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u945.gif"/></i>-galactose to <i><img align="middle" height="17" width="7" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u946.gif"/></i>-galactose
A: convert galactose to glucose

Q: Hypoglycemia is a condition in which ________.
- the glucose level in the blood is about 100 mg/dL
- the amount of glucose in the urine is higher than normal
- the glucose level in the blood is higher than normal
- the glucose level in the pancreas is higher than normal
- the glucose level in the blood is lower than normal
A: the glucose level in the blood is lower than normal

Q: Hyperglycemia is a condition in which ________.
- the glucose level in the blood is about 100 mg/dL
- the amount of glucose in the urine is lower than normal
- the glucose level in the blood is higher than normal
- the glucose level in the pancreas is lower than normal
- the glucose level in the liver is lower than normal
A: the glucose level in the blood is higher than normal

Q: Glucose can have the structure shown below. It can be classified as a(n) ________.<br/><img align="middle" height="195" width="194" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f45g1q26g1.jpg"/>
- ribose
- ketose
- disaccharide
- monosaccharide
- ketone
A: monosaccharide

Q: Benedict's test requires an aldehyde and an adjacent ________.
- saturated carbon
- ketone
- hydroxyl
- phenyl ring
- acid
A: hydroxyl

Q: Which sugar is not a reducing sugar?
- glucose
- fructose
- galactose
- maltose
- sucrose
A: sucrose

Q: Aspartame<sup>®</sup> and Saccharin<sup>®</sup> are two examples of ________.
- disaccharides
- polysaccharides
- chlorosaccharides
- alcohol sweeteners
- noncarbohydrate sweeteners
A: noncarbohydrate sweeteners

Q: A glycosidic bond between two monosaccharides can also be classified as a(n) ________.
- double bond
- ester bond
- ether bond
- achiral bond
- alcohol bond
A: ether bond

Q: In a disaccharide, two monosaccharides are joined by what kind of bond?
- double
- anomeric
- alcohol
- glycosidic
- rotational
A: glycosidic

Q: Which of the following contains a <i><img align="middle" height="17" width="7" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u946.gif"/>-</i>1,4-glycosidic bond?
- galactose
- lactose
- maltose
- sucrose
- amylose
A: lactose

Q: <i>Refer to the disaccharide below to answer the following question(s).</i><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f45g1q33g1.gif"/><img align="middle" height="271" width="183" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f45g1q33g2.jpg"/><br/><br/><br/>In the figure above, the monosaccharide on the bottom is a(n) ________.
- aldopentose
- ketopentose
- aldohexose
- aldoheptose
- ketohexose
A: ketohexose

Q: <i>Refer to the disaccharide below to answer the following question(s).</i><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f45g1q34g1.gif"/><img align="middle" height="271" width="183" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f45g1q34g2.jpg"/><br/><br/><br/> In the figure above, the monosaccharide on the top is a(n) ________.
- aldopentose
- ketopentose
- aldohexose
- aldoheptose
- ketohexose
A: aldohexose

Q: <i>Refer to the disaccharide below to answer the following question(s).</i><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f45g1q35g1.gif"/><img align="middle" height="271" width="183" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f45g1q35g2.jpg"/><br/><br/><br/>Hydrolysis of the disaccharide above gives the monosaccharides ________.
- fructose and ribose
- fructose and galactose
- ribose and glucose
- ribose and galactose
- fructose and lactose
A: fructose and galactose

Q: <i>Refer to the disaccharide below to answer the following question(s).</i><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f45g1q36g1.gif"/><img align="middle" height="271" width="183" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f45g1q36g2.jpg"/><br/><br/><br/>The disaccharide above contains a(n) ________-glycosidic linkage.
- <i><img align="middle" height="17" width="8" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u945.gif"/></i>-1,4
- <i><img align="middle" height="17" width="7" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u946.gif"/></i>-1,4
- <i><img align="middle" height="17" width="8" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u945.gif"/></i>-2,4
- <i><img align="middle" height="17" width="7" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u946.gif"/></i>-2,4
- <i><img align="middle" height="17" width="8" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u945.gif"/></i>-2,6
A: <i><img align="middle" height="17" width="8" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u945.gif"/></i>-2,6

Q: Maltose is a ________.
- monosaccharide
- disaccharide
- trisaccharide
- polysaccharide
- phosphosaccharide
A: disaccharide

Q: Maltose can be classified as a(n) ________.
- disaccharide
- polysaccharide
- ketose
- pentose
- tetrasaccharide
A: disaccharide

Q: Galactose is a product of enzymatic hydrolysis of ________.
- lactose
- glucose
- maltose
- erythrose
- sucrose
A: lactose

Q: Amylose is a ________.
- monosaccharide
- disaccharide
- trisaccharide
- polysaccharide
- phosphosaccharide
A: polysaccharide

Q: Which of the following contains <i><img align="middle" height="17" width="8" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u945.gif"/></i>-1,6-branches?
- amylose
- glycogen
- cellulose
- sucrose
- maltose
A: glycogen

Q: Cellulose is not digestible by humans because it contains glucose units linked by ________-glycosidic bonds.
- <i><img align="middle" height="17" width="8" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u945.gif"/></i>-1,2
- <i><img align="middle" height="17" width="8" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u945.gif"/></i>-1,4
- <i><img align="middle" height="17" width="8" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u945.gif"/></i>-1,6
- <i><img align="middle" height="17" width="7" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u946.gif"/></i>-1,2
- <i><img align="middle" height="17" width="7" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u946.gif"/></i>-1,4
A: <i><img align="middle" height="17" width="7" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u946.gif"/></i>-1,4

Q: Amylose is a form of starch which has ________.
- only <i><img align="middle" height="17" width="7" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u946.gif"/></i>-1,4-bonds between glucose units
- only <i><img align="middle" height="17" width="8" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u945.gif"/></i>-1,4-links bonds glucose units
- both <i><img align="middle" height="17" width="8" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u945.gif"/></i>-1,4-and<i> <img align="middle" height="17" width="7" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u946.gif"/></i>-1,4-bonds between glucose units
- hemiacetal links joining glucose units
- carbon-carbon bonds joining glucose units
A: only <i><img align="middle" height="17" width="8" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u945.gif"/></i>-1,4-links bonds glucose units

Q: Amylopectin is a form of starch which has ________.
- only <i><img align="middle" height="17" width="7" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u946.gif"/></i>-1,4-bonds between glucose units
- only <i><img align="middle" height="17" width="8" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u945.gif"/></i>-1,4-links bonds glucose units
- both <i><img align="middle" height="17" width="8" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u945.gif"/></i>-1,4-and<i> <img align="middle" height="17" width="8" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u945.gif"/></i>-1,6-bonds between glucose units
- hemiacetal links joining glucose units
- carbon-carbon bonds joining glucose units
A: both <i><img align="middle" height="17" width="8" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u945.gif"/></i>-1,4-and<i> <img align="middle" height="17" width="8" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u945.gif"/></i>-1,6-bonds between glucose units

Q: Cellulose is a polysaccharide which has ________.
- only <i><img align="middle" height="17" width="7" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u946.gif"/></i>-1,4-bonds between glucose units
- only <i><img align="middle" height="17" width="8" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u945.gif"/></i>-1,4-links bonds glucose units
- both <i><img align="middle" height="17" width="8" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u945.gif"/></i>-1,4-and<i> <img align="middle" height="17" width="8" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u945.gif"/></i>-1,6-bonds between glucose units
- hemiacetal links joining glucose units
- carbon-carbon bonds joining glucose units
A: only <i><img align="middle" height="17" width="7" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u946.gif"/></i>-1,4-bonds between glucose units

Q: Humans cannot digest cellulose because they ________.
- lack the necessary enzymes to digest <i><img align="middle" height="17" width="7" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u946.gif"/></i>-glycosides
- are allergic to <i><img align="middle" height="17" width="7" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u946.gif"/></i>-glycosides
- are poisoned by<i> <img align="middle" height="17" width="7" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u946.gif"/></i>-glycosides
- have intestinal flora which use up <i><img align="middle" height="17" width="7" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u946.gif"/></i>-glycosides
- cannot digest chlorophyll
A: lack the necessary enzymes to digest <i><img align="middle" height="17" width="7" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u946.gif"/></i>-glycosides

Q: Under acid hydrolysis conditions, starch is converted to ________.
- glucose
- xylose
- maltose
- galactose
- fructose
A: glucose

Q: <i>Identify each Fischer projection as the <font size="-1">D</font>- or <font size="-1">L</font>-isomer.<br/><br/><br/></i><br/><img align="middle" height="224" width="195" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f46g1q1g1.jpg"/>
A: D

Q: <i>Identify each Fischer projection as the <font size="-1">D</font>- or <font size="-1">L</font>-isomer.<br/><br/><br/></i><br/><img align="middle" height="249" width="149" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f46g1q2g1.jpg"/>
A: L

Q: <i>Identify each Fischer projection as the <font size="-1">D</font>- or <font size="-1">L</font>-isomer.<br/><br/><br/></i><br/><img align="middle" height="263" width="138" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f46g1q3g1.jpg"/>
A: D

Q: <i>Identify each Fischer projection as the <font size="-1">D</font>- or <font size="-1">L</font>-isomer.<br/><br/><br/></i><br/><img align="middle" height="218" width="146" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f46g1q4g1.jpg"/>
A: L

Q: <i>Identify each Fischer projection as the <font size="-1">D</font>- or <font size="-1">L</font>-isomer.<br/><br/><br/></i><br/><img align="middle" height="205" width="169" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f46g1q5g1.jpg"/>
A: D

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Q: Sucrose is a disaccharide.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Amylose is a polysaccharide.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Cellulose is a monosaccharide.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: Stereoisomers are not structural isomers.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Enantiomers are mirror images of each other.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: A chiral carbon atom can have fewer than four different groups bonded to it.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: Enantiomers may have very different tastes or smells.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: The biological activity of one enantiomers may be very different from the biological activity of the other enantiomer.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: In the Fischer projection of<font size="-1"> D</font>-glucose, the -OH group on the chiral carbon farthest from the aldehyde is to the left.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: In the Fischer projection of <font size="-1">D</font>-fructose, the -OH group on the chiral carbon farthest from the ketone is to the right.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: In beta-glucose, the new -OH group is above the plane of the ring.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: In glucose, the -OH group on carbon 4 is above the plane of the ring.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: Aldehydes with an adjacent alcohol give a positive Benedict's test.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: A deep blue color in Benedict's test indicates the presence of an aldehyde with an adjacent alcohol.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: A reducing sugar gives a precipitate of silver metal with Benedict's reagent.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: The product of oxidation of an aldose is a carboxylic acid.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: The product of reduction of mannose is mannoic acid.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: Sucrose is a reducing sugar.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: The product of reduction of xylose is xylitol.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Sucrose is made up of glucose units only.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: Amylopectin is a straight-chain polysaccharide.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: The glucose units in cellulose are connected by <i><img align="middle" height="17" width="7" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u946.gif"/>-</i>1,4-glycosidic bonds.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Humans do not have the enzyme necessary to hydrolyze cellulose.
- True
- False
A: True

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Q: Which functional group is found in a carboxylic acid?
- <img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>OH<br/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f49g1q1g1.gif"/><br/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f49g1q1g2.gif"/><br/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f49g1q1g3.gif"/><br/>
- - CH<sub>2</sub>-OH<br/>
A: <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f49g1q1g1.gif"/><br/>

Q: A carboxylic acid is named in the IUPAC system by replacing the <i>e</i> in the name of the parent alkane with ________.
- <i>oic</i> acid
- <i>oic</i>
- <i>carboxylic</i> acid
- acid
- <i>oate</i>
A: <i>oic</i> acid

Q: The functional group in acetic acid is called the ________.
- hydroxyl group
- aldehyde group
- carbonyl group
- carboxyl group
- ester group
A: carboxyl group

Q: The IUPAC name of this compound is ________.<br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f49g1q4g1.gif"/><img align="middle" height="48" width="91" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f49g1q4g2.jpg"/>
- 3-chloro-1-butanol
- chlorobutyric acid
- 3-chlorobutyric acid
- 2-chlorobutanoic acid
- 3-chlorobutanoic acid
A: 3-chlorobutanoic acid

Q: Which of the following is found in vinegar?
- nitric acid
- formic acid
- acetic acid
- propionic acid
- butyric acid
A: acetic acid

Q: What is the common name for ethanoic acid?
- butyric acid
- formic acid
- citric acid
- stearic acid
- acetic acid
A: acetic acid

Q: What is the irritating acid found in ant and bee stings?
- acetic acid
- formic acid
- citric acid
- butyric acid
- stearic acid
A: formic acid

Q: <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f49g1q8g1.gif"/>
- acetic acid
- propanoic acid
- propionic acid
- butanoic acid
- butyric acid
A: butyric acid

Q: What is the IUPAC name for this compound?<br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f49g1q9g1.gif"/><br/>
- pentanoic acid
- 2-methylbutanoic acid
- 3-methylbutanoic acid
- 2-methyl butyric acid
- 2-methyl-4-butanoic acid
A: 3-methylbutanoic acid

Q: What kind of taste do carboxylic acids have?
- sweet
- sour
- fruity
- slippery
- oily
A: sour

Q: Which carboxylic acid in the list below is an aromatic carboxylic acid?
- acetic acid
- benzoic acid
- butyric acid
- benzene
- citric acid
A: benzoic acid

Q: Which of these functional groups is likely to give a sour taste to a food?
- ester
- ether
- ketone
- carboxylic acid
- thiol
A: carboxylic acid

Q: In water solution, how does dilute acetic acid behave?
- as a strong acid
- as a weak acid
- as a strong base
- as a weak base
- as a neutral compound
A: as a weak acid

Q: The neutralization of formic acid by NaOH produces ________.
- sodium formate as the only product
- formate ion and hydronium ion
- sodium formaldehyde
- methyl alcohol
- sodium formate and H<sub>2</sub>O
A: sodium formate and H<sub>2</sub>O

Q: Which of the following compounds is most soluble in water?
- CH<sub>3</sub>-CH<sub>2</sub> -CH<sub>3</sub><br/>
- CH<sub>3</sub>-CH<sub>2</sub>-CH<sub>2</sub>-O-CH<sub>3</sub><br/>
- CH<sub>3</sub>-CH<sub>2</sub>-CH<sub>2</sub>-CH<sub>2</sub>-OH<br/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f49g1q15g1.gif"/><br/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f49g1q15g2.gif"/><br/>
A: <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f49g1q15g2.gif"/><br/>

Q: When compared to sulfuric acid, how strong are carboxylic acids?
- stronger
- just as strong
- weaker
- not acidic at all
A: weaker

Q: What happens to water solubility as the hydrocarbon chain length increases in carboxylic acids?
- It increases.
- It decreases.
- It stays the same.
A: It decreases.

Q: Which compound below contains an ester functional group?
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f49g1q18g1.gif"/><br/>
- CH<sub>3</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>2</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>O<img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>2</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>3</sub><br/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f49g1q18g2.gif"/><br/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f49g1q18g3.gif"/><br/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f49g1q18g4.gif"/><br/>
A: <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f49g1q18g2.gif"/><br/>

Q: This functional group is known as a(n) ________.<br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f49g1q19g1.gif"/><br/>
- ester
- carboxylic acid
- alcohol
- aldehyde
- acetal
A: ester

Q: Many of the fragrances of flowers and the flavors of fruits are due to ________.
- ethers
- carboxylic acids
- esters
- amines
- amides
A: esters

Q: What is the common name of this compound?<br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f49g1q21g1.gif"/><br/>
- ethyl methyl ester
- diethyl ester
- ethyl methanoate
- 2-ether-2-butanone
- ethyl acetate
A: ethyl acetate

Q: The reactants that will form an ester in the presence of an acid catalyst are ________.
- two carboxylic acids
- two alcohols
- a carboxylic acid and an alcohol
- an aldehyde and an alcohol
- two aldehydes
A: a carboxylic acid and an alcohol

Q: Which of these compounds is the ester formed from the reaction of acetic acid and 1-propanol?
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f49g1q23g1.gif"/><br/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f49g1q23g2.gif"/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f49g1q23g3.gif"/><br/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f49g1q23g4.gif"/><br/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f49g1q23g5.gif"/><br/>
A: <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f49g1q23g4.gif"/><br/>

Q: The alcohol and carboxylic acid required to form propyl ethanoate are ________.
- methanol and propionic acid
- ethanol and propionic acid
- propanol and propanoic acid
- 1-propanol and ethanoic acid
- 2-propanol and ethanoic acid
A: 1-propanol and ethanoic acid

Q: What is the product of the reaction of an alcohol and a carboxylic acid when heated together under acidic conditions?
- an ether
- an ester
- a salt
- a ketone
- an aldehyde
A: an ester

Q: The first word in the name of an ester is derived from the ________ used in the esterification.
- carboxylic acid
- alcohol
- ether
- ester
- amide
A: alcohol

Q: The splitting apart of an ester in the presence of a strong acid and water is called ________.
- hydrolysis
- saponification
- neutralization
- esterification
- reduction
A: hydrolysis

Q: When this compound undergoes hydrolysis in acid, what product(s) are obtained?<br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f49g1q28g1.gif"/><img align="middle" height="48" width="115" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f49g1q28g2.jpg"/>
- butanoic acid and ethanol
- butanoic acid
- ethanol
- ethanoic acid and butanol
- butanoic acid and butanol
A: butanoic acid and ethanol

Q: Which of the following is the reaction for the acid hydrolysis of ethyl formate?
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f49g1q29g1.gif"/><br/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f49g1q29g2.gif"/><br/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f49g1q29g3.gif"/><br/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f49g1q29g4.gif"/><br/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f49g1q29g5.gif"/><br/>
A: <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f49g1q29g4.gif"/><br/>

Q: Which of the following is the reaction for the saponification of methyl acetate?
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f49g1q30g1.gif"/><br/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f49g1q30g2.gif"/><br/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f49g1q30g3.gif"/><br/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f49g1q30g4.gif"/><br/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f49g1q30g5.gif"/><br/>
A: <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f49g1q30g2.gif"/><br/>

Q: The reaction of an ester with NaOH is known as ________.
- esterification
- neutralization
- saponification
- reduction
- oxidation
A: saponification

Q: What chemical process is responsible for the smell of vinegar in an old bottle of aspirin?
- reduction
- hydration
- hydrolysis
- esterification
- dissolution
A: hydrolysis

Q: What kind of conditions can produce hydrolysis of an ester?
- acidic
- basic
- either acidic or basic
- neither acidic nor basic
A: either acidic or basic

Q: <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f49g1q34g1.gif"/>
- ethylamine
- ethylethylamine
- diethylamine
- dimethylamine
- ethylmethylamine
A: diethylamine

Q: The compound CH<sub>3</sub>-CH<sub>2</sub>-NH<sub>2</sub> is classified as a ________.
- primary amine
- secondary amine
- tertiary amine
- quaternary amine
- hydrated amine
A: primary amine

Q: <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f49g1q36g1.gif"/>
- primary amine
- secondary amine
- tertiary amine
- quaternary amine
- hydrated amine
A: secondary amine

Q: Which of the following compounds cannot form hydrogen bonds with water?
- CH<sub>3</sub>-CH<sub>2</sub>-CH<sub>3</sub><br/>
- CH<sub>3</sub>-CH<sub>2</sub>-OH<br/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f49g1q37g1.gif"/><br/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f49g1q37g2.gif"/><br/>
- CH<sub>3</sub>-CH<sub>2</sub>-NH<sub>2</sub><br/>
A: CH<sub>3</sub>-CH<sub>2</sub>-CH<sub>3</sub><br/>

Q: What is the common name of this compound?<br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f49g1q38g1.gif"/><br/>
- trimethylamine
- diethylamine
- ethylmethylamine
- ethylmethylnitride
- ethyldimethylamine
A: ethyldimethylamine

Q: Which of the following represents the complete neutralization of dimethylamine?
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f49g1q39g1.gif"/><br/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f49g1q39g2.gif"/><br/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f49g1q39g3.gif"/>  <br/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f49g1q39g4.gif"/>  <br/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f49g1q39g5.gif"/><br/>
A: <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f49g1q39g5.gif"/><br/>

Q: When ethylamine dissolves in water, a solution of ________ is produced.
- ammonia
- ethylammonium and hydroxide
- ethylamine
- ethylhydroxide
- ethylhydroxylate
A: ethylammonium and hydroxide

Q: Diethylamine and HCl react to produce ________.
- diethyl chloride
- diethylammonium chloride
- ethylammonium chloride
- ammonium chloride
- butylammonium chloride
A: diethylammonium chloride

Q: Physiologically active nitrogen-containing compounds produced by plants are called ________.
- aromatics
- alkaloids
- esters
- polymers
- ethers
A: alkaloids

Q: Amines contain the element ________.
- nitrogen
- oxygen
- sulfur
- astatine
- arginine
A: nitrogen

Q: In what kind of amine is the nitrogen atom bonded to two carbon atoms?
- primary
- secondary
- tertiary
- quaternary
- amide
A: secondary

Q: What functional group is always found in alkaloids (such as caffeine, nicotine, and digitalis)?
- amide
- acid
- ether
- amine
- ester
A: amine

Q: Aniline is a(n) ________.
- primary aromatic amine
- secondary aromatic amine
- heterocyclic amine
- aliphatic amine
- tertiary amine
A: primary aromatic amine

Q: What prefix is used to show that a small alkyl group is attached to the nitrogen of aniline and not to the aromatic ring?
- <i>N-</i>
- <i>C-</i>
- Roman numerals
- Greek letters
- <i>iso-</i>
A: <i>N-</i>

Q: How many alkyl substituents does<i> N</i>-ethyl-<i>N</i>-methylaniline have?
- one
- two
- three
- eight
- none
A: two

Q: What physiologically active amine is responsible for the signs and symptoms encountered in an allergic reaction?
- histamine
- epinephrine
- diphenhydramine
- phenylephrine
- dopamine
A: histamine

Q: A deficiency of which amine is responsible for the signs and symptoms of Parkinson's disease?
- histamine
- dopamine
- epinephrine
- diphenhydramine
- methedrine
A: dopamine

Q: The prefix <i>nor-</i> in a drug name means that there is ________.
- one more amine in the new molecule than in the original
- one more methyl group on the nitrogen atom in the new molecule than in the original
- one less methyl group on the nitrogen atom in the new molecule than in the original
- one less amine in the new molecule than in the original
- one less double bond in the new molecule than in the original
A: one less methyl group on the nitrogen atom in the new molecule than in the original

Q: Amines can form ________ bonds with water molecules.
- oxygen
- hydrogen
- nonpolar
- metallic
- triple
A: hydrogen

Q: Amines are ________.
- Brønsted-Lowry bases
- Brønsted-Lowry acids
- neutral in water solution
- unreactive.
A: Brønsted-Lowry bases

Q: The odor of an amine can be neutralized with ________.
- water
- acids
- bases
- detergents
- solvents
A: acids

Q: In what form are amine-containing drugs often administered?
- free base
- sodium salt
- ammonium salt
- water solution
- oil solution
A: ammonium salt

Q: What are alkaloids?
- physiologically active nitrogen compounds derived from plants
- anesthetics found in plants
- flavoring agents found in fruits and vegetables
- preservatives found in animal tissue
- natural steroids
A: physiologically active nitrogen compounds derived from plants

Q: Nicotine, coniine, quinine, atropine, and morphine are all examples of ________.
- ethers
- esters
- carboxylic acids
- alkaloids
- amides
A: alkaloids

Q: The amide formed in the reaction of benzoic acid and ethylamine is ________.
- <br/><img align="middle" height="107" width="143" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f49g1q58g1.jpg"/>
- <br/><img align="middle" height="138" width="126" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f49g1q58g2.jpg"/>
- <br/><img align="middle" height="107" width="127" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f49g1q58g3.jpg"/>
- <br/><img align="middle" height="134" width="98" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f49g1q58g4.jpg"/>
- <br/><img align="middle" height="146" width="161" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f49g1q58g5.jpg"/>
A: <br/><img align="middle" height="138" width="126" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f49g1q58g2.jpg"/>

Q: When acetic acid reacts with ammonia, NH<sub>3</sub>, the reaction yields ________.
- acetamine
- ammonium acetate
- ethylammonium hydroxide
- amino acetate
- acetamide
A: acetamide

Q: What is the functional group in the following compound?<br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f49g1q60g1.gif"/><br/>
- ketone
- carboxylic acid
- ester
- amine
- amide
A: amide

Q: With the correct choice of acid, acid hydrolysis of acetamide could produce ________.
- acetic acid and ammonium chloride
- acetic acid and methylamine
- ethanol and ammonia
- acetaldehyde and ammonium hydroxide
- formic acid and ethylamine
A: acetic acid and ammonium chloride

Q: To which chemical class does phenobarbital belong?
- ester
- amine
- amide
- alkane
- ether
A: amide

Q: Amides are derivatives of ________ and ________.
- amines, esters
- amines, carboxylic acids
- alkanes, amines
- carboxylic acids, alcohols
- alcohols, carboxylic acids
A: amines, carboxylic acids

Q: What two compounds will react to give this amide?<br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f49g1q64g1.gif"/><img align="middle" height="46" width="97" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f49g1q64g2.jpg"/>
- propanol and ammonia
- propanoic acid and ammonia
- propanoic acid and ethylamine
- propanoic acid and diethylamine
- propanoic acid and methylamine
A: propanoic acid and ethylamine

Q: What kind of compound is urea?
- ester
- acid
- amide
- ketone
- amine
A: amide

Q: The IUPAC name of this compound is ________. <br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f49g1q66g1.gif"/><img align="middle" height="59" width="104" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f49g1q66g2.jpg"/>
- pentanamide
- butyramide
- butylamine
- butanamide
- propanamide
A: butanamide

Q: Amides having fewer than ________ carbons are generally water soluble.
- five
- six
- ten
- eleven
- twelve
A: six

Q: Carboxylic acids are responsible for the sweet taste of fruits and vegetables.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: The major acidic component of vinegar is formic acid.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: Benzoic acid is an aliphatic carboxylic acid.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: Carboxylic acids with more than five carbons are very water soluble.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: Carboxylic acids with four or fewer carbons are very water soluble.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Most of the carboxylic acid in an aqueous solution is ionized.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: Carboxylic acids are strong acids.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: Esters are formed from the reaction of an ether with a carboxylic acid.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: An ester is derived from an alcohol and a carboxylic acid.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Methyl salicylate (oil of wintergreen) is used therapeutically as a counterirritant.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Butyl alcohol is one of the reactants used to make methyl butyrate.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: Aspirin that has a smell of vinegar has broken down by hydrolysis.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Acid catalyzed hydrolysis of an ester yields a carboxylic acid and an alcohol.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Base catalyzed hydrolysis of an ester yields a carboxylic acid and the salt of an alcohol.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: Soaps are the soluble salt of long chain fatty acids.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Caffeine is an alkaloid.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Amines are rarely found in physiologically active compounds.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: This skeletal formula represents a tertiary amine.<br/><img align="middle" height="35" width="90" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f50g1q18g1.jpg"/>
- True
- False
A: False

Q: Primary amines contain two carbon-containing groups bonded to the nitrogen atom.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: The prefix <i>meth-</i> means that there is one less methyl group on the nitrogen atom of an amine.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: Amines do not form hydrogen bonds.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: Tertiary amines form strong hydrogen bonds.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: Amines act as weak acids by accepting protons from water.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: Amines are mostly ionized in water.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: Ammonium salts are usually liquid at room temperature.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: Ammonium salts are odorless and usually highly water soluble.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Aniline is an aromatic amine.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Crack cocaine is produced by the neutralization and extraction of cocaine from its hydrochloride salt.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Quinine is an alkaloid used for treatment of malaria.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Nicotine is a physiologically active aromatic amine.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Heroin is a synthetic compound developed from morphine.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Urea is one end product of protein metabolism in humans.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Aspirin substitutes may contain amide rather than ester functional groups.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: The amide group is often found in physiologically active substances.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: This skeletal formula represents an amide. <br/><img align="middle" height="46" width="97" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f50g1q35g1.jpg"/>
- True
- False
A: True

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Q: Which statement is not true?
- Lipids are found in cell membranes.
- Lipids are soluble in organic solvents.
- There are many different types of lipids.
- All lipids contain fatty acids.
- Some hormones are lipids.
A: All lipids contain fatty acids.

Q: Lipids are compounds that are soluble in ________.
- distilled water
- normal saline solution
- glucose solution
- chloroform
- oxygen
A: chloroform

Q: Which of the following is not a function of lipids in the human body?
- energy storage
- insulation
- protection
- chemical messengers
- pH regulation
A: pH regulation

Q: Which of the following is a lipid?
- cholesterol
- nicotine
- aniline
- lactose
- collagen
A: cholesterol

Q: A polyunsaturated fatty acid contains more than one ________.
- carboxyl group
- hydroxyl group
- carbonyl group
- long carbon chain
- carbon-carbon double bond
A: carbon-carbon double bond

Q: The skeletal structure of palmitoleic acid is shown below. Palmitoleic acid is a ________.<br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f52g1q6g1.gif"/><img align="middle" height="59" width="311" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f52g1q6g2.jpg"/>
- saturated fatty acid
- polyunsaturated fatty acid
- monounsaturated fatty acid
- strong acid
- monosaturated fatty acid
A: monounsaturated fatty acid

Q: Unsaturated fatty acids have lower melting points than saturated fatty acids because ________.
- they have fewer hydrogen atoms
- they have more hydrogen atoms
- their molecules fit closely together
- the cis double bonds give them an irregular shape
- the trans double bonds give them an irregular shape
A: the cis double bonds give them an irregular shape

Q: Which of the following is an unsaturated fatty acid?
- myristic
- oleic
- palmitic
- stearic
- lauric
A: oleic

Q: Which of the following fatty acids is most likely to be a solid at room temperature?
- palmitoleic
- oleic
- stearic
- linoleic
- linolenic
A: stearic

Q: Compared to saturated fatty acids, unsaturated fatty acids have ________.
- longer carbon chains
- shorter carbon chains
- higher melting points
- lower melting points
- greater intermolecular attraction
A: lower melting points

Q: Waxes are lipids derived from ________.
- a long-chain alcohol and a long-chain fatty acid
- glycerol and three fatty acids
- glycerol, fatty acids, phosphate, and an amino alcohol
- fatty acids, phosphate, and an amino alcohol
- steroids
A: a long-chain alcohol and a long-chain fatty acid

Q: The skeletal structure below is that of a ________. <br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f52g1q12g1.gif"/><img align="middle" height="59" width="296" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f52g1q12g2.jpg"/>
- wax
- fat
- glycerophospholipid
- steroid
- fatty acid
A: wax

Q: A triacylglycerol that is solid at room temperature is called a(n) ________.
- cephalin
- lecithin
- oil
- wax
- fat
A: fat

Q: Which of the following lipids will give a single molecule of fatty acid when hydrolyzed?
- wax
- fat
- glycerophospholipid
- steroid
- petroleum
A: wax

Q: Commercially, liquid vegetable oils are converted to solid fats such as margarine by ________.
- hydrogenation
- hydrolysis
- hydration
- oxidation
- saponification
A: hydrogenation

Q: Margarine containing partially hydrogenated soybean oil is solid because ________.
- it contains only saturated fats
- it contains only trans fatty acids
- some of its double bonds have been converted to single bonds
- it contains only cis carbon-carbon double bonds
- it contains only polyunsaturated fatty acids
A: some of its double bonds have been converted to single bonds

Q: Palmitic acid is a 16 carbon acid. In a balanced equation, the products of the saponification of tripalmitin (glyceryl tripalmitate) are ________.
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f52g1q17g1.gif"/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f52g1q17g2.gif"/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f52g1q17g3.gif"/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f52g1q17g4.gif"/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f52g1q17g5.gif"/>
A: <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f52g1q17g3.gif"/>

Q: The products of the acid catalyzed hydrolysis of a fat are ________.
- the esters of fatty acids
- fatty acids and glycerol
- salts of fatty acids
- salts of fatty acids and glycerol
- glycerophospholipids
A: fatty acids and glycerol

Q: A double cheeseburger with bacon contains 39 g of fat. Calculate the number of kilocalories from fat. (1 gram of fat = 9 kcal)
- 4.3 kcal from fat
- 39 kcal from fat
- 71 kcal from fat
- 350 kcal from fat
- 640 kcal from fat
A: 350 kcal from fat

Q: Glycerophospholipids can interact both with other lipids and water because they contain ________.
- double bonds
- polar regions and nonpolar regions
- glycerol
- saturated fatty acids
- cholesterol
A: polar regions and nonpolar regions

Q: The components in the following glycerophospholipid are ________. <br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f52g1q21g1.gif"/><img align="middle" height="194" width="154" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f52g1q21g2.jpg"/><br/>
- sphingosine, palmitic acid, phosphate, and choline.
- sphingosine, palmitic acid, phosphate, and serine.
- glycerol, palmitic acid, phosphate, and ethanolamine.
- glycerol, palmitic acid, phosphate, and galactose.
- sphingosine, palmitic acid, phosphate, and ethanolamine.
A: glycerol, palmitic acid, phosphate, and ethanolamine.

Q: Which of the lipid types listed below is most soluble in water?
- triacylglycerols
- glycerolphospholipids
- oils
- steroids
- waxes
A: glycerolphospholipids

Q: Which of the following compounds is a glycerophospholipid?
- jojoba wax
- estrogen
- lecithin
- triolein
- stearic acid
A: lecithin

Q: Which of the following is not a function of glycerophospholipids?
- transport of triacylglycerols
- regulation of cellular permeability
- protect nerve cells
- aid in digestion
- transport of cholesterol
A: aid in digestion

Q: The main lipid components in cellular membranes are ________.
- glycerolphospholipids
- fatty acids
- steroids
- triacylglycerols
- waxes
A: glycerolphospholipids

Q: The most common type of gallstones is composed of almost pure ________.
- cholesterol
- waxes
- glycerophospholipids
- calcium salts of fatty acids
- anabolic steroids
A: cholesterol

Q: Which of the following is not a lipoprotein that carries nonpolar lipids through the bloodstream?
- glycerol
- LDL
- HDL
- VLDL
- chylomicron
A: glycerol

Q: The steroid hormone that increases the blood glucose and glycogen levels from fatty acids and amino acids is ________.
- aldosterone
- progesterone
- cortisone
- estrogen
- prednisone
A: cortisone

Q: A lipoprotein particle functions to ________.
- dissolve polar lipids for excretion
- metabolize lipids into new substances
- dissolve polar lipids in urine
- transport nonpolar lipid to body cells
- store lipids in the tissues
A: transport nonpolar lipid to body cells

Q: Synthesis of cholesterol takes place in the ________.
- liver
- gall bladder
- small intestine
- large intestine
- pancreas
A: liver

Q: <i>For the following question(s), identify the class of lipid to which each of the following molecules belongs.<br/><br/><br/></i><br/><img align="middle" height="149" width="129" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f52g1q31g1.jpg"/><br/>
- triacylglycerol
- wax
- glycerophospholipid
- fatty acid
- steroid
A: triacylglycerol

Q: <i>For the following question(s), identify the class of lipid to which each of the following molecules belongs.<br/><br/><br/></i><br/><img align="middle" height="194" width="154" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f52g1q32g1.jpg"/><br/>
- glycerophospholipid
- triacylglycerol
- fatty acid
- steroid
- wax
A: glycerophospholipid

Q: <i>For the following question(s), identify the class of lipid to which each of the following molecules belongs.<br/><br/><br/></i><br/><img align="middle" height="155" width="335" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f52g1q33g1.jpg"/><br/>
- steroid
- glycerophospholipid
- wax
- triacylglycerol
- prostaglandin
A: steroid

Q: According to the fluid-mosaic model of a cell membrane, the main component of a membrane is ________.
- a lipid bilayer.
- a membrane protein
- fatty acid
- a steroid
- a prostaglandin
A: a lipid bilayer.

Q: The type of lipid that gives a cell membrane its structure is a ________.
- triacylglycerol
- glycerophospholipid
- prostaglandin
- fatty acid
- wax
A: glycerophospholipid

Q: <i>Answer the following question(s) about the diagram shown below.</i><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f52g1q36g1.gif"/><img align="middle" height="204" width="346" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f52g1q36g2.jpg"/><br/><br/><br/>In this diagram of a cell membrane, the small branched object labeled (A) is part of a ________.
- steroid
- hydrophobic region
- membrane protein
- glycerophospholipid
- carbohydrate side chain
A: carbohydrate side chain

Q: <i>Answer the following question(s) about the diagram shown below.</i><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f52g1q37g1.gif"/><img align="middle" height="204" width="346" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f52g1q37g2.jpg"/><br/><br/><br/>In this diagram of a cell membrane, the objects labeled (E) are ________.
- steroids
- hydrophobic regions
- proteins
- glycerophospholipids
- carbohydrate side chains
A: proteins

Q: <i>Answer the following question(s) about the diagram shown below.</i><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f52g1q38g1.gif"/><img align="middle" height="204" width="346" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f52g1q38g2.jpg"/><br/><br/><br/>In this diagram of a cell membrane, the object labeled (C) is a ________.
- steroid
- protein
- glycerophospholipid
- mitochondrion
- carbohydrate side chain
A: glycerophospholipid

Q: <i>Answer the following question(s) about the diagram shown below.</i><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f52g1q39g1.gif"/><img align="middle" height="204" width="346" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f52g1q39g2.jpg"/><br/><br/><br/>In this diagram of a cell membrane, the object labeled (B) is a ________.
- steroid
- hydrophobic region
- membrane protein
- phospholipid bilayer
- carbohydrate side chain
A: phospholipid bilayer

Q: In the fluid-mosaic model that describes cell membranes, ________.
- there are three layers of phospholipid molecules
- two layers of phospholipid molecules have their nonpolar sections oriented to the inside of the membrane
- two layers of phospholipid molecules have their nonpolar sections along the outer surface of the membrane
- A single row of phospholipid molecules forms a barrier between the inside and outside of the cell
- two layers of proteins separate the contents inside a cell from the surrounding fluids
A: two layers of phospholipid molecules have their nonpolar sections oriented to the inside of the membrane

Q: Which of the following is an unsaturated fatty acid?
- oleic
- palmitic
- lauric
- myristic
- stearic
A: oleic

Q: Which of the following is a saturated fatty acid?
- oleic
- palmitoleicic
- linoleic
- arachidonic
- stearic
A: stearic

Q: Prostaglandins are formed from ________ acid.
- oleic
- linoleic
- arachidonic
- tauric
- palmitic
A: arachidonic

Q: The name of the reaction that occurs when a fat reacts with sodium hydroxide and water is ________.
- hydrogenation
- reduction
- hydration
- oxidation
- saponification
A: saponification

Q: Cholesterol belongs to the ________ group of lipids.
- glycerophospholipid
- steroid
- prostaglandin
- triacylglycerol
- wax
A: steroid

Q: In a simple model of atherosclerosis and heart disease, the compound that forms plaques that adhere to the walls of the blood vessels is ________.
- cholesterol
- carnauba wax
- stearic acid
- glycerol
- oleic acid
A: cholesterol

Q: Cholesterol is a lipid.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Oleic acid is a saturated fatty acid.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: Stearic acid is a saturated fatty acid.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: This skeletal structure represents a saturated fatty acid.<br/><img align="middle" height="59" width="235" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f54g1q4g1.jpg"/>
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Fish such as salmon and tuna are high in omega-3 fatty acids.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: A wax is composed of glycerol and three fatty acids.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: Waxes do not contain fatty acids.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: The catalyst needed for saponification is H<sup>+</sup> ion.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: Hydrogenation of a double bond in a triacylglycerol requires a catalyst.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: One function of glycerophospholipids is to provide structure to cell membranes.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Steroids do not contain fatty acids.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: In the fluid-mosaic model of cell membranes, the phospholipid molecules are oriented with their heads to the outside of the membrane.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Glycerophospholipids are components of cell membranes.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: The interior of a lipid bilayer is the hydrophilic region.
- True
- False
A: False

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Q: Which of the following is not a function of proteins?
- provide structural components
- stores the genetic information of a living organism
- movement of muscles
- catalyze reactions in the cells
- transport substances through the bloodstream
A: stores the genetic information of a living organism

Q: Collagen, a protein found in tendons and cartilage, would be classified as a ________ protein.
- catalytic
- structural
- transport
- storage
- hormone
A: structural

Q: Sucrase, the protein that facilitates the hydrolysis of sucrose, would be classified as a ________ protein.
- transport
- hormonal
- catalytic
- structural
- contractile
A: catalytic

Q: Glycine is the only naturally occurring amino acid that is ________.
- negatively charged
- positively charged
- neutral
- in the<font size="-1"> L</font>- form
- achiral
A: achiral

Q: A basic amino acid has a side chain that contains ________.
- an ammonium group
- a carboxyl ate group
- a methyl group
- an alcohol group
- a thiol group
A: an ammonium group

Q: In the ionized form of an amino acid, the carboxylic acid end is ________.
- positively charged
- negatively charged
- neutral
- soluble in a nonpolar solvent
- attached to an amine
A: negatively charged

Q: Methionine is an amino acid that contains ________.
- a sulfur atom
- a chlorine atom
- a sodium atom
- a phenyl ring
- a heterocyclic ring
A: a sulfur atom

Q: The structural formulas of amino acids are the same except for the ________.
- carboxylate group
- alpha carbon
- ammonium group
- R group
- hydrogen bonding
A: R group

Q: Wool is primarily made up of ________.
- protein
- carbohydrate
- globin
- triacylglycerols
- enkephalin
A: protein

Q: The following amino acid side chain is ________.<br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f56g1q10g1.gif"/><br/>
- polar
- hydrophobic
- hydrophilic
- acidic
- basic
A: hydrophobic

Q: The R group for serine is -CH<sub>2</sub>-OH. In the ionized form, serine has the structural formula ________.<br/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f56g1q11g1.gif"/><br/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f56g1q11g2.gif"/><br/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f56g1q11g3.gif"/><br/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f56g1q11g4.gif"/><br/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f56g1q11g5.gif"/><br/>
A: <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f56g1q11g5.gif"/><br/>

Q: Which of the following functional groups of an amino acid would be in the ionized state at high pH?
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f56g1q12g1.gif"/><br/>
- <img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>2</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>OH<br/>
- <img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>3</sub><br/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f56g1q12g2.gif"/><br/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f56g1q12g3.gif"/>
A: <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f56g1q12g1.gif"/><br/>

Q: The side chain for histidine is classified as a ________ side chain.
- basic
- neutral
- acidic
- nonpolar
- polar
A: basic

Q: At a pH > 9, the ionized form of glycine will have ________.
- a net positive charge
- a net negative charge
- an overall charge of zero
- low solubility in water
- a negative charge on the nitrogen
A: a net negative charge

Q: At a pH < 5, the ionized form for alanine (pI = 6) will have ________.
- a net positive charge
- a net negative charge
- an overall charge of zero
- low solubility in water
- a negative charge on the carboxyl group
A: a net positive charge

Q: What is the structural formula of glutamic acid (pI = 3.2) at pH = 1?
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f56g1q16g1.gif"/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f56g1q16g2.gif"/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f56g1q16g3.gif"/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f56g1q16g4.gif"/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f56g1q16g5.gif"/>
A: <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f56g1q16g5.gif"/>

Q: Which of the following would be most likely to be deficient in at least one essential amino acid?
- eggs
- milk
- beans
- steak
- ham
A: beans

Q: Amino acids that are not synthesized in the body and must be obtained from the diet are called ________.
- essential
- polar
- nonpolar
- complete
- incomplete
A: essential

Q: A completely vegetarian diet will contain all the essential amino acids if it includes ________.
- wheat and rice
- rice and beans
- almonds and walnuts
- corn and beans
- wheat and corn
A: rice and beans

Q: The peptide bonds that link amino acids in a protein are ________.
- ester bonds
- ether bonds
- amide bonds
- glycosidic bonds
- sulfide bonds
A: amide bonds

Q: In the peptide STFNA, the N-terminal amino acid is ________.
- alanine
- phenylalanine
- tryptophan
- aspartic acid
- serine
A: serine

Q: In the peptide Ala-Try-Gly-Phe, the N-terminal amino acid is ________.
- alanine
- phenylalanine
- tryptophan
- aspartic acid
- glycine
A: alanine

Q: In the peptide Ser-Cys-Ala-Gly, the C-terminal end is ________.
- serine
- serotonin
- glycine
- glycerine
- alanine
A: glycine

Q: In the peptide GLVIW, the C-terminal end is ________.
- tryptophan
- serotonin
- glycine
- glycerine
- alanine
A: tryptophan

Q: A chain made of more than 50 amino acids that has biological activity is referred to as a(n) ________.
- peptide
- protein
- enzyme
- globulin
- hormone
A: protein

Q: The attractive forces that are important in the secondary structure of a protein are ________.
- hydrogen bonds
- hydrophobic interactions
- disulfide bonds
- salt bridges
- peptide bonds
A: hydrogen bonds

Q: Which of the following is a secondary protein structure?
- <i><img align="middle" height="17" width="8" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u945.gif"/></i>-helix
- Ser-Met-Ala-Gly-Ile
- disulfide bond
- salt bridges
- hydrophobic interactions
A: <i><img align="middle" height="17" width="8" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u945.gif"/></i>-helix

Q: Which R group would most likely be found in a hydrophobic area of the tertiary structure of a globular protein?
- <img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>2</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>OH<br/>
- <img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>CH<sub>2</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>COO<sup>-</sup><br/>
- <br/><img align="middle" height="65" width="144" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f56g1q28g1.jpg"/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f56g1q28g2.gif"/><br/>
- <img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f56g1q28g3.gif"/><br/>
A: <br/><img align="middle" height="65" width="144" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f56g1q28g1.jpg"/>

Q: What type of interaction would you expect between the following R groups in the tertiary structure of a protein?<br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f56g1q29g1.gif"/>
- disulfide bonds
- salt bridges
- hydrogen bonds
- hydrophobic interactions
- peptide bonds
A: salt bridges

Q: What type of interaction would you expect between the following R groups in the tertiary structure of a protein?<br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f56g1q30g1.gif"/><img align="middle" height="89" width="148" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f56g1q30g2.jpg"/>
- disulfide bonds
- salt bridges
- hydrogen bonds
- hydrophobic interactions
- peptide bonds
A: hydrophobic interactions

Q: What kinds of interactions are not part of tertiary protein structure?
- peptide bonds
- disulfide bonds
- hydrophilic interactions
- salt bridges
- hydrophobic interactions
A: peptide bonds

Q: Acids and bases denature a protein by disrupting ________.
- peptide bonds and salt bridges
- amide bonds and alkene bonds
- hydrophobic interactions and peptide bonds
- salt bridges and hydrophobic interactions
- salt bridges and hydrogen bonds
A: salt bridges and hydrogen bonds

Q: Heat denatures a protein by disrupting ________.
- salt bridges and peptide bonds
- hydrophobic interactions and hydrogen bonds
- peptide bonds and hydrophobic interactions
- disulfide bonds and peptide bonds
- hydrogen bonds and disulfide bonds
A: hydrophobic interactions and hydrogen bonds

Q: The secondary structure of collagen consists of ________.
- single <i><img align="middle" height="17" width="8" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u945.gif"/></i>-helix strands
- double <i><img align="middle" height="17" width="8" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u945.gif"/></i>-helix strands
- many <i><img align="middle" height="17" width="8" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u945.gif"/></i>-helixes wound into fibrils
- a braided triple helix
- many glycoside links
A: a braided triple helix

Q: The fibrous protein responsible for the structure of hair and wool is ________.
- keratin
- collagen
- endorphin
- myosin
- casein
A: keratin

Q: The <i><img align="middle" height="17" width="8" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u945.gif"/></i> helix of the secondary structure of a protein is held together by ________ between two widely separated parts of a protein chain.
- hydrogen bonds
- disulfide bridges
- salt bridges
- hydrophilic interactions
- hydrophobic interactions
A: hydrogen bonds

Q: In the <i><img align="middle" height="17" width="7" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u946.gif"/></i>-pleated sheet secondary structure of a protein, two or more amino acid sequences in separate parts of the protein are held together ________.
- in a coil, by hydrogen bonding
- in random order, due to hydrophobic interactions
- in a triple helix
- in a double helix
- by hydrogen bonding between different sections of the polypeptide chain
A: by hydrogen bonding between different sections of the polypeptide chain

Q: Enkephalins are polypeptides that have ________.
- a sweet taste
- a bitter taste
- extra caloric value
- pain-killing properties
- hormone activity
A: pain-killing properties

Q: In insulin, two peptide chains are held together in a single unit by ________.
- disulfide bridges
- hydrogen bonds
- salt bridges
- a prosthetic group
- a<i> <img align="middle" height="17" width="7" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u946.gif"/></i>-pleated sheet
A: disulfide bridges

Q: Hemoglobin is an example of a protein with ________.
- primary structure only
- a single polypeptide chain
- a globular structure
- primarily a <i><img align="middle" height="17" width="7" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u946.gif"/></i>-pleated sheet structure
- primarily an<i> <img align="middle" height="17" width="8" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u945.gif"/></i> helix structure
A: a globular structure

Q: The heme in hemoglobin is a(n) ________.
- protein chain
- small molecule within a protein
- helix area in the hemoglobin molecule
- pleated sheet area in the hemoglobin molecule
- oxygen molecule within the hemoglobin molecule
A: small molecule within a protein

Q: Within hemoglobin, the heme functions as ________.
- a disulfide bridge
- an oxygen carrier
- a reducing agent
- an <i><img align="middle" height="17" width="8" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u945.gif"/></i> subunit
- one of the four protein subunits
A: an oxygen carrier

Q: Hemoglobin has a total of ________ protein chains in its quaternary structure.
- one
- two
- three
- four
- five
A: four

Q: The function of myoglobin is to ________.
- carry vitamins in the blood
- carry oxygen in the blood
- support the skeletal muscles
- carry oxygen in the muscle
- provide strength in cartilage
A: carry oxygen in the muscle

Q: In sickle-cell anemia, the hemoglobin molecules ________.
- come apart into separate chains
- enlarge to twice normal size
- clump together into insoluble fibers
- dissolve in the plasma
- undergo crenation
A: clump together into insoluble fibers

Q: Denaturation of a protein ________.
- changes the primary structure of a protein
- disrupts the secondary, tertiary, or quaternary structure of a protein
- is always irreversible
- hydrolyzes peptide bonds
- can only occur in a protein with quaternary structure
A: disrupts the secondary, tertiary, or quaternary structure of a protein

Q: One heavy metal that can cause denaturation of a protein is ________.
- silver
- sodium
- barium
- iron
- calcium
A: silver

Q: Heavy metals denature proteins by ________.
- releasing amino acids
- disrupting hydrophobic interactions
- changing the pH of the protein solution
- changing the temperature of the protein solution
- disrupting disulfide bonds
A: disrupting disulfide bonds

Q: An acid can denature a protein by ________.
- agitating the protein chains
- disrupting hydrogen bonds between side chains
- disrupting hydrophobic interactions within a protein chain
- removing helping molecules such as heme
- breaking disulfide bridges
A: disrupting hydrogen bonds between side chains

Q: Disulfide bonds in a protein chain connect ________.
- an amine and a carboxylic acid group
- an alcohol and a carboxylic acid group
- tryptophan and alanine residues
- two cysteine residues
- two asparagine residues
A: two cysteine residues

Q: Enkephalins, naturally produced opiates in the body, are found in ________.
- muscles and bone tissue
- brain and kidney tissue
- thalamus and spinal cord tissue
- heart and lung tissue
- pancreas and liver tissue
A: thalamus and spinal cord tissue

Q: To what main class of enzymes does the enzyme that catalyzes the conversion of lactose to galactose and glucose belong?
- oxidoreductase
- transferase
- hydrolase
- lyase
- isomerase
A: hydrolase

Q: The purpose of the many chemical reactions in our bodies is to ________.
- store chemical energy in the body for future use
- produce the amino acids
- produce the lipids
- release chemical energy for the production of macromolecules
- All of these
A: All of these

Q: To what main class of enzymes does the enzyme that catalyzes the following reaction belong?<br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f56g1q54g1.gif"/><br/>
- oxidoreductase
- transferase
- hydrolase
- lyase
- isomerase
A: oxidoreductase

Q: To what main class of enzymes does the enzyme that catalyzes the following reaction belong?<br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f56g1q55g1.gif"/><br/>
- oxidoreductase
- transferase
- hydrolase
- lyase
- isomerase
A: hydrolase

Q: Compared to an uncatalyzed reaction, an enzyme-catalyzed reaction ________.
- uses less substrate
- produces different products
- occurs at a faster rate
- requires more energy
- requires a higher temperature
A: occurs at a faster rate

Q: The general function of an enzyme in the body is to ________.
- catalyze chemical reactions
- maintain a neutral pH
- act as a reactant in carbohydrate storage
- maintain homeostasis
- eliminate waste products from the blood
A: catalyze chemical reactions

Q: A biological catalyst is called a(n) ________.
- lipid
- enzyme
- steroid
- coenzyme
- substrate
A: enzyme

Q: The full name of the enzyme LDH is ________.
- lactate dehydrogenase
- liver decompensation hexase
- lactate dehydrase
- liver dihydrogen kinase
- lipase dehydrogenase
A: lactate dehydrogenase

Q: The names of many enzymes can be recognized by the suffix ________.
- <i>ate</i>
- <i>ite</i>
- <i>ose</i>
- <i>ine</i>
- <i>ase</i>
A: <i>ase</i>

Q: The hydrolysis of ester bonds in triacylglycerols is catalyzed by a ________.
- lipase
- lyase
- isomerase
- peptidase
- oxidoreductase
A: lipase

Q: Most enzymes are ________.
- fluid-mosaic proteins
- induced proteins
- substrate proteins
- fibrous proteins
- globular proteins
A: globular proteins

Q: The presence of enzymes to catalyze bioreactions in our bodies allows ________.
- us to eat non-nutritious substances without consequence
- the activation energy of a reaction to be raised
- the rate of a desired chemical reaction to slow down
- bioreactions to occur under extreme conditions of temperature and pH
- bioreactions to take place under mild conditions
A: bioreactions to take place under mild conditions

Q: The formation of an enzyme-substrate complex is the ________ step in enzyme action.
- first
- second
- third
- fourth
- last
A: first

Q: The active site of an enzyme ________.
- is remote from the site of substrate attachment
- is converted to a product
- is the region where the reaction takes place
- increases the energy of reaction
- includes the entire enzyme
A: is the region where the reaction takes place

Q: The optimum temperature for sucrase activity is 37 °C. The hydrolysis of sucrose is slowest at which temperature in the choices below?
- 0 °C
- 10 °C
- 20 °C
- 25 °C
- 45 °C
A: 0 °C

Q: Which of the following is not true for a competitive inhibitor?
- It occupies the active site
- It cannot be converted to products
- It has a structure similar to the substrate
- Increasing the substrate concentration can reverse competitive inhibition
- It binds to the enzyme at a site remote from the active site
A: It binds to the enzyme at a site remote from the active site

Q: A noncompetitive inhibitor ________.
- binds at the active site of the enzyme
- alters the three-dimensional structure of the enzyme
- increases the rate of the enzyme-catalyzed reaction
- has a structure similar to the substrate
- has its effect reversed by adding more substrate
A: alters the three-dimensional structure of the enzyme

Q: "Physiologic conditions" for reactions within the body are approximately ________.
- pH 3 and 37 °C
- pH 7 and 37 °C
- pH 7 and 37 °F
- pH 8 and 273 °C
- pH 7 and 273 K
A: pH 7 and 37 °C

Q: "Physiological pH," the pH for optimum activity for most enzymes, is a pH equal to about ________.
- 3.0
- 5.4
- 7.4
- 8.6
- 9.0
A: 7.4

Q: In the lock-and-key model of enzyme action, the enzyme active site is thought of as ________.
- a rigid, nonflexible shape that fits the substrate exactly
- an area of the enzyme that can adjust to fit the substrate shape
- a key-like shape that fits into a pocket of the substrate surface
- a hydrophilic area on the enzyme surface
- a lock that bars a noncompetitive inhibitor from reacting
A: a rigid, nonflexible shape that fits the substrate exactly

Q: In the induced-fit model of enzyme action, the enzyme active site ________.
- stays the same shape during substrate binding
- adjusts shape to adapt to the shape of the substrate
- stays the same shape while causing a change in the shape of the substrate
- uses an inhibitor to adjust its shape for the substrate
- uses a cofactor to change the shape of a substrate
A: adjusts shape to adapt to the shape of the substrate

Q: The function of the enzyme-substrate complex is to provide an alternative reaction pathway that ________.
- lowers the energy of the products
- lowers the energy of the substrate
- changes the concentration of the substrate
- lowers the activation energy for the reaction
- changes the possible product formed
A: lowers the activation energy for the reaction

Q: How many generalized steps are there in the reaction of an enzyme (E) with a substrate (S) to form and release the product (P)?
- one
- two
- three
- four
- five
A: two

Q: Most enzymes are deactivated permanently above a temperature of about ________.
- 25 °C
- 37 °F
- 40 °C
- 45 °F
- 50 °C
A: 50 °C

Q: Urea is converted to ammonia and carbon dioxide by the action of urease. What will be the effect on the rate if the temperature of the reaction is lowered from 37 °C (the optimum temperature) to 27 °C?<br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f56g1q76g1.gif"/><br/>
- There will be no effect.
- The rate will slow down.
- The rate will double.
- The rate will triple.
- The rate will slow down, then speed up again.
A: The rate will slow down.

Q: A competitive inhibitor is one that ________.
- binds to the enzyme at a site far from the active site
- binds to the active site in place of the substrate
- destroys the substrate
- binds to the allosteric site on an enzyme
- forms a complex with the substrate
A: binds to the active site in place of the substrate

Q: A noncompetitive inhibitor has a structure that ________.
- does not resemble the substrate structure
- resembles the active site of the enzyme
- can bind to the active site of the enzyme
- does not interfere with the enzyme-substrate complex formation
- causes a change in the shape of the substrate
A: does not resemble the substrate structure

Q: A compound that binds to an enzyme, and changes its shape so that a substrate cannot enter the active site, is called a(n) ________.
- coenzyme
- proenzyme
- steroid
- noncompetitive inhibitor
- competitive inhibitor
A: noncompetitive inhibitor

Q: Enzymes that catalyze the same reactions but have slightly different structures are called ________.
- coenzymes
- cofactors
- isoenzymes
- competitive
- noncompetitive
A: isoenzymes

Q: The optimum pH for the activity of pepsin is about ________.
- 2.0
- 4.0
- 6.5
- 7.4
- 7.6
A: 2.0

Q: Immunoglobulin, a protein that stimulates immune responses, would be classified as a ________ protein.
- transport
- structural
- storage
- protection
- catalytic
A: protection

Q: What type of amino acids has polar side chains that are attracted to water?
- hydrophilic
- hydrophobic
- nonpolar
- aromatic
- hydrocarbon
A: hydrophilic

Q: At what pH would you expect valine, with a pI of 6.0, to have a 1+ charge?
- 1.0
- 6.0
- 7.0
- 10.0
- 14.0
A: 1.0

Q: Consider the R groups of the following amino acids:<br/> <br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f57g1q4g1.gif"/><br/> <br/>The name for the dipeptide shown below is ________.<br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f57g1q4g2.gif"/><br/>
- alanylcysteine
- alanylserine
- serylalanine
- serylcysteine
- serinealanine
A: alanylserine

Q: In an enzyme, the polypeptide chain folds into a compact shape known as the ________ structure.
- pleated
- primary
- secondary
- tertiary
- quaternary
A: tertiary

Q: When two protein chains combine to form an active protein, the structural level is ________.
- pleated
- primary
- secondary
- tertiary
- quaternary
A: quaternary

Q: Hydrophobic interactions help to stabilize the ________ structure(s) of a protein.
- primary
- secondary
- secondary and tertiary
- tertiary and quaternary
- secondary and quaternary
A: tertiary and quaternary

Q: An enzyme that removes H atoms to form a double is a (an)
- lyase.
- isomerase.
- hydrolase.
- oxidoreductase.
- transferase.
A: oxidoreductase.

Q: What process occurs when heat, acids, bases, and heavy metal ions cause a loss of biological function of a protein?
- denaturation
- saponification
- hydrogenation
- amidation
- esterification
A: denaturation

Q: Collagen can be classified as a ________ protein.
A: structural

Q: The protein that transports oxygen in the blood is ________.
A: hemoglobin

Q: Proteins that stimulate immune response are known as ________.
A: immunoglobulins

Q: Amino acids that are not synthesized in the body but must be ingested with the diet are called ________ amino acids.
A: essential

Q: The isoelectric point for any amino acid is the pH at which the amino acid has a net charge of ________.
A: zero

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Q: The structural level represented by the presence of four units in hemoglobin is ________.
A: quaternary

Q: The molecules to which an enzyme binds are called the ________.
A: substrate

Q: The optimum temperature for most biological enzymes is ________.
Feedback: 37 °C

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Q: A ________ consists of a nitrogen-containing base and a sugar.
- nucleoside
- base pair
- nucleotide
- complementary base
- pyrimidine
A: nucleoside

Q: A ________ consists of a nitrogen-containing base, a sugar, and a phosphate group.
- nucleoside
- base pair
- nucleotide
- complementary base
- purine
A: nucleotide

Q: Which of the following cannot be found in a nucleotide of RNA?
- purine
- pyrimidine
- phosphate
- ribose
- deoxyribose
A: deoxyribose

Q: Which of the following is found in RNA but not in DNA?
- thymine
- uracil
- guanine
- cytosine
- deoxyribose
A: uracil

Q: Which of the following will not be found in DNA?
- adenine
- thymine
- guanine
- cytosine
- ribose
A: ribose

Q: Which of the following can be found in DNA?
- ribose
- GMP
- uracil
- deoxyadenosine
- FMN
A: deoxyadenosine

Q: The interactions that link the nucleotides in a nucleic acid are
- ionic bonds
- peptide bonds
- hydrogen bonds
- hydrophobic bonds
- phosphodiester bonds
A: phosphodiester bonds

Q: The nucleotides in the backbone of DNA are held together by ________ bonds.
- hydrogen
- peptide
- phosphodiester
- glycosidic
- ionic
A: phosphodiester

Q: The unique sequence of bases in a nucleic acid is called the ________ structure.
- ionic
- primary
- secondary
- tertiary
- quaternary
A: primary

Q: The base sequence of the strand of DNA complementary to the segment<br/>-T G G C A A C- is:
- -T G G C A A C-
- -A C C G T T G-
- -A C C G U U G-
- -U C C G T T G-
- -A C G C T U G-
A: -A C C G T T G-

Q: The bonds that link the base pairs in the DNA double helix are ________.
- ionic bonds
- peptide bonds
- hydrogen bonds
- hydrophobic interactions
- ester bonds
A: hydrogen bonds

Q: The two new DNA molecules formed in replication ________.
- are different from the original DNA
- both contain only two new daughter DNA strands
- both contain only the parent DNA strands
- contain one parent and one daughter strand
- are identical, with one containing both parent strands, and the other containing both daughter strands
A: contain one parent and one daughter strand

Q: What is the process in which the DNA double helix unfolds, and each strand serves as a template for the synthesis of a new strand?
- transcription
- complementation
- translation
- replication
- restriction
A: replication

Q: When DNA replicates, a guanine forms a base pair with ________.
- uracil
- adenine
- guanine
- thymine
- cytosine
A: cytosine

Q: The two strands of the double helix of DNA are held together by ________.
- hydrogen bonds
- covalent bonds
- dipole-dipole interactions
- ionic bonds
- sugar-to-phosphate bonds
A: hydrogen bonds

Q: In the synthesis of mRNA, an adenine in the DNA pairs with ________.
- uracil
- adenine
- guanine
- thymine
- cytosine
A: uracil

Q: Which of the following types of RNA carries the genetic information from DNA in the nucleus to the ribosomes?
- mRNA
- histone RNA
- rRNA
- tRNA
- sRNA
A: mRNA

Q: The base sequence of the DNA template strand is -T G C A A C-. What is the corresponding mRNA?
- -T G C A A C-
- -A C G U U G-
- -A C C U U G-
- -U C G T T G-
- -U C G T T C-
A: -A C G U U G-

Q: In transcription, ________.
- the mRNA produced is identical to the parent DNA
- a double helix containing one parent strand and one daughter strand is produced
- uracil pairs with thymine
- both strands of the DNA are copied
- the mRNA produced is complementary to one strand of the DNA
A: the mRNA produced is complementary to one strand of the DNA

Q: Which of the following is a section of mRNA produced from the DNA template below?<br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f60g1q20g1.gif"/><br/>
- -A T A G C T A-
- -A U A G C U A-
- -U A U C G A U-
- -U U U G C U U-
- -T A T C G A T-
A: -U A U C G A U-

Q: Which one of the following base pairs is found in DNA?
- adenine-thymine
- adenine-guanine
- cytosine-thymine
- adenine-uracil
- guanine-uracil
A: adenine-thymine

Q: A DNA template having the base sequence -A G A T G A- would produce a mRNA with a base sequence of ________.
- -A G A T G A-
- -U C U A C U-
- -T C T U C T-
- -T C T A C A-
- -A C A U C A-
A: -U C U A C U-

Q: Codons are base pair sequences that ________.
- signal the start of DNA synthesis
- signal the end of DNA synthesis
- code for amino acids
- signal the start of RNA synthesis
- code for one or more bases in mRNA
A: code for amino acids

Q: When mRNA is synthesized using the information from DNA, the process is called ________.
- transportation
- transposition
- transcription
- translation
- transliteration
A: transcription

Q: The codon is found on ________, and the anticodon is found on ________.
- mRNA, tRNA
- tRNA, mRNA
- rRNA, tRNA
- ribosomes, tRNA
- mRNA, rRNA
A: mRNA, tRNA

Q: The anticodon is ________.
- identical to the codon on DNA
- complementary to the codon on DNA
- identical to the codon on mRNA
- complementary to the codon on mRNA
- complementary to the codon on tRNA
A: complementary to the codon on mRNA

Q: During protein synthesis, the codon for an amino acid is found on ________.
- DNA
- rRNA
- tRNA
- mRNA
- sRNA
A: mRNA

Q: The anticodon of UAG is ________.
- ATC
- UAG
- AAC
- AUC
- GAU
A: AUC

Q: The codon UGA codes for ________.
- Phe
- Tyr
- Start
- Met
- Stop
A: Stop

Q: Translation is the process whereby ________.
- DNA is synthesized from DNA
- DNA is synthesized from mRNA
- protein is synthesized from DNA
- protein is synthesized from mRNA
- mRNA is synthesized from DNA
A: protein is synthesized from mRNA

Q: What tripepetide is coded for by the following mRNA sequence? -UUU AGA CCA-
- Phe-Pro-Arg
- Pro-Arg-Phe
- Phe-Arg-Pro
- Leu-Pro-Arg
- Phe-Thr-Pro
A: Phe-Arg-Pro

Q: Mutations are the result of ________.
- alterations in the phosphate of the DNA backbone
- exposure to water in utero
- physical trauma in the mother's childhood
- alterations in the sugar component of the DNA backbone
- alterations in the DNA base sequence
A: alterations in the DNA base sequence

Q: The result of a defective enzyme caused by a mutation in the DNA nucleotide sequence is ________.
- a genetic disease
- AIDS
- HIV
- recombinant DNA
- translocation
A: a genetic disease

Q: When a mutation occurs by elimination of one base in a DNA sequence, this mutation is called a ________.
- frameshift mutation
- insertion mutation
- substitution mutation
- translocation mutation
- viral mutation
A: frameshift mutation

Q: A mutation which occurs when one base in a DNA sequence replaces another, is called a ________.
- frameshift mutation
- insertion mutation
- substitution mutation
- translocation mutation
- viral mutation
A: substitution mutation

Q: Small living particles, with 3 to 200 genes, that cannot replicate without a host cell are called ________.
- recombinant DNAs
- viruses
- bacteria
- tumors
- plasmids
A: viruses

Q: A virus that contains RNA as its genetic material is a ________.
- genetically engineered virus
- bacteria
- recombinant DNA
- retrovirus
- vaccine
A: retrovirus

Q: Protease inhibitors, which are effective anti-HIV drugs, ________.
- are nucleoside analogs
- prevent reverse transcription
- prevent synthesis of viral proteins
- prevent mRNA synthesis
- prevent activation of tRNA
A: prevent synthesis of viral proteins

Q: Adenine is a purine.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Uracil is a pyrimidine.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: A nucleotide consists of only a base and a sugar.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: One of the differences between DNA and RNA is the sugar it contains.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: The unique sequence of bases in a nucleic acid is the secondary structure.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: Nucleotides are linked by phosphodiester bonds.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: The sequence of bases in a nucleic acid is the secondary structure.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: The DNA complement of the sequence -G C C A T- is -G C C A T-.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: DNA is a protein.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: In the DNA double helix, a purine can only pair with a pyrimidine.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: mRNA codons contain three "letters."
- True
- False
A: True

Q: The stop codon terminates protein synthesis.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Messenger RNA carries protein synthesis information from the nucleus to the ribosomes.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: The codon UUU codes for phenylalanine.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: The codon AGA codes for serine.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: The process of translocation involves the synthesis of mRNA.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: The start codon is AUG.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Down syndrome is an acquired disease, not a genetic disease.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: AZT is a drug used in the treatment of cancer.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: A retrovirus uses DNA as its genetic material.
- True
- False
A: False

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Q: The reactions by which complex molecules are broken down into simpler ones for the body's use are ________.
- transmission reactions
- catabolic reactions
- anabolic reactions
- glucogenesis
- gluconeogenesis
A: catabolic reactions

Q: The reactions by which complex molecules are built up for the body's use are ________.
- transmission reactions
- catabolic reactions
- anabolic reactions
- glucogenesis
- gluconeogenesis
A: catabolic reactions

Q: Overall, catabolic reactions ________.
- release energy
- take in energy
- occur mainly in the liver
- occur outside the cell membrane
- take place in the nucleus of the cell
A: release energy

Q: Anabolic reactions are reactions that ________.
- use oxidation but not reduction
- break down large molecules into smaller ones
- take place in the mitochondria
- require energy
- give off energy
A: require energy

Q: How many main stages of catabolism are there?
- one
- two
- three
- four
- five
A: three

Q: The first stage of catabolism is ________.
- the citric acid cycle
- production of pyruvate
- production of acetyl-CoA
- buildup of macromolecules from monomers
- digestion of large molecules
A: digestion of large molecules

Q: The middle stage of catabolism is the point at which ________.
- acetyl-CoA is produced
- monomers are produced from macromolecules
- macromolecules are made from monomers
- glycogen is converted to glucose
- excess nutrients are stored as fats
A: acetyl-CoA is produced

Q: Protein synthesis takes place ________.
- in the mitochondria
- on the endoplasmic reticulum
- in the nucleus
- on the ribosomes
- in the cytosol
A: on the ribosomes

Q: The main compound used to release energy for metabolism is ________.
- sucrose
- glucose phosphate
- adenosine triphosphate
- ribonucleic acid
- NAD<sup>+</sup>
A: adenosine triphosphate

Q: The components of ATP are ________.
- adenosine, ribose, and three phosphate groups
- aniline and three phosphate groups
- alanine, ribose, and three phosphate groups
- adenine, ribose, and three phosphate groups
- adenosine, deoxyribose, and three phosphate groups
A: adenine, ribose, and three phosphate groups

Q: The hydrolysis of ATP to ADP is ________.
- endothermic
- exothermic
- isothermic
- an oxidation
- a reduction
A: exothermic

Q: The final products of catabolic reactions are ________.
- carbon dioxide, water, and ammonia
- glucose, lipids, and glycogen
- lipids, oxygen, and water
- RNA and DNA
- lipids and carbohydrates
A: carbon dioxide, water, and ammonia

Q: Which of the three major stages of metabolism includes the citric acid cycle?
- stage one
- stage two
- stage three
A: stage three

Q: The citric acid cycle takes place in the ________.
- mitochondria
- cytosol
- cytoplasm
- Golgi apparatus
- endoplasmic reticulum
A: mitochondria

Q: Digestion of carbohydrates begins in the ________.
- mouth
- stomach
- pancreas
- small intestine
- large intestine
A: mouth

Q: An enzyme that can facilitate the breakdown of amylose into smaller units is ________.
- glucose phosphatase
- alcohol dehydrogenase
- amylase
- lactase
- maltase
A: amylase

Q: The digestion of protein begins in the ________.
- mouth
- stomach
- small intestine
- large intestine
- pancreas
A: stomach

Q: The initial stage of the digestion of protein is catalyzed by an enzyme called ________.
- chymotrypsin
- peptidase
- pepsin
- amylase
- trypsin
A: pepsin

Q: The digestion of fats begins in the ________.
- mouth
- stomach
- small intestine
- gall bladder
- large intestine
A: small intestine

Q: The digestion of fats begins when the fat globules are ________.
- emulsified by bile salts
- attacked by protease enzymes to form smaller fat globules
- converted to lipoproteins for greater solubility
- hydrolyzed to glucose and amino acids
- hydrolyzed to glycerol and fatty acids
A: emulsified by bile salts

Q: Fatty acids and glycerol are produced from the metabolism of ________.
- lipids
- proteins
- carbohydrates
- amino acids
- glucose
A: lipids

Q: The action of pancreatic lipase on triacylglycerols produces ________.
- emulsions
- micelles
- monoacylglycerols and free fatty acids
- high-density lipoproteins
- low-density lipoproteins
A: monoacylglycerols and free fatty acids

Q: A chylomicron is a ________.
- lipase
- digestive enzyme
- triacylglycerol
- transport lipoprotein
- storage protein
A: transport lipoprotein

Q: The enzymes that break down triacylglycerols into fatty acids and glycerol are called ________.
- lyases
- aconitases
- lipases
- hydrolases
- oxidoreductases
A: lipases

Q: In biochemical systems, the term <i>reduction</i> often refers to ________.
- a loss of hydrogen or electrons by a compound
- a gain of hydrogen or electrons by a compound
- a gain in oxygen
- a loss of electrons
- an energy-releasing reaction
A: a gain of hydrogen or electrons by a compound

Q: NAD<sup>+</sup> participates in reactions that produce ________.
- a CH<sub>2</sub> group
- a C<img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57349.gif"/>O bond
- phosphorylation
- ADP from ATP
- a C<img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>C bond
A: a C<img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57349.gif"/>O bond

Q: FAD is a coenzyme which usually participates in ________.
- oxidation of alcohols to aldehydes
- formation of carbon-carbon double bonds
- decarboxylation reactions
- phosphorylation reactions
- <i><img align="middle" height="17" width="7" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u946.gif"/></i>-oxidation reactions
A: formation of carbon-carbon double bonds

Q: Coenzyme A is a molecule whose function is to ________.
- activate enzyme A
- undergo phosphorylation
- provide energy for the citric acid cycle
- activate acyl groups for reaction
- help break down macromolecules
A: activate acyl groups for reaction

Q: Which coenzyme is reduced in the following reaction?<br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f63g1q29g1.gif"/><br/>
- FAD
- NAD<sup>+</sup>
- CoQ
- NADH
- FADH<sub>2</sub>
A: FAD

Q: Which coenzyme is reduced in the following reaction?<br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f63g1q30g1.gif"/><br/>
- FAD
- NAD<sup>+</sup>
- CoQ
- NADH
- FADH<sub>2</sub>
A: NAD<sup>+</sup>

Q: Which of the following metabolic pathways can occur in the absence of oxygen?
- electron transport
- oxidative phosphorylation
- citric acid cycle
- glycolysis
- <i><img align="middle" height="17" width="7" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u946.gif"/></i>-oxidation
A: glycolysis

Q: The compounds formed when fructose-1,6-bisphosphate is split are ________.
- pyruvic acid and lactic acid
- ethanol and acetyl-CoA
- dihydroxyacetone phosphate and pyruvic acid
- dihydroxyacetone phosphate and glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
- glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate and pyruvic acid
A: dihydroxyacetone phosphate and glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate

Q: When one glucose molecule undergoes glycolysis it generates ________.
- 6 ATP
- 6 ATP and 2 NADH
- 2 ATP and 2 NADH
- 2 ATP and 4 NADH
- 12 ATP
A: 2 ATP and 2 NADH

Q: Glycolysis is a(n) ________ process.
- aerobic
- anaerobic
- anabolic
- one-step
- five-step
A: anaerobic

Q: In the process of glycolysis, glucose is converted to ________.
- pyruvate
- citrate
- sucrose
- oxaloacetate
- ribose
A: pyruvate

Q: The overall process of glycolysis ________.
- requires oxygen
- uses up 4 ATP molecules
- requires acetyl-CoA
- is an anabolic pathway
- produces 2 ATP molecules
A: produces 2 ATP molecules

Q: Under aerobic conditions, pyruvate produced in glycolysis can be converted to ________.
- glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
- lactic acid
- glucose-6-phosphate
- fructose-6-phosphate
- acetyl-CoA
A: acetyl-CoA

Q: Under anaerobic conditions, lactate is produced from ________.
- acetyl-CoA
- pyruvate
- ATP
- carbon dioxide
- NAD<sup>+</sup>
A: pyruvate

Q: In the absence of oxygen in muscles, pyruvate is converted to ________.
- glycogen
- glucose
- ethanol
- lactate
- glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
A: lactate

Q: When oxygen is in plentiful supply in the cell, pyruvate is converted to ________.
- CoA
- acetyl-CoA
- glucose
- lactate
- fructose
A: acetyl-CoA

Q: The primary fuel for the synthesis of ATP is ________.
- protein
- lactate
- ammonia
- GTP
- glucose
A: glucose

Q: Under anaerobic conditions, there is a net production of ________ ATP during glycolysis.
- zero
- two
- four
- six
- eight
A: two

Q: In glycolysis, glucose produces 2 pyruvate molecules and a total of ________ ATP molecules.
- 2
- 4
- 6
- 8
- 12
A: 6

Q: In order to enter the citric acid cycle, pyruvate is first converted to ________.
- lactate
- acetaldehyde
- citrate
- acetyl-CoA
- ethanol
A: acetyl-CoA

Q: The citric acid cycle is used in the oxidation of ________.
- glucose only
- glucose and fatty acids only
- fatty acids only
- glucose, fatty acids, and proteins
- proteins only
A: glucose, fatty acids, and proteins

Q: What coenzyme(s) is(are) used in the citric acid cycle?
- FAD only
- NAD<sup>+</sup> only
- NADH + FADH<sub>2</sub> + CoA
- CoQ
- NAD<sup>+</sup> + FAD
A: NAD<sup>+</sup> + FAD

Q: Which of the following compounds in the citric acid cycle undergoes oxidation and decarboxylation?
- citrate
- isocitrate
- succinate
- fumarate
- succinyl-CoA
A: isocitrate

Q: In stage three of metabolism, the overall result is to release ________.
- glucose and water
- lactate and acetyl-CoA
- lactate and glucose
- glycogen and water
- carbon dioxide and energy
A: carbon dioxide and energy

Q: Most of the energy released in the citric acid cycle is used to produce ________.
- glucose
- acetyl-CoA
- NADH and FADH<sub>2</sub>
- carbon dioxide and water
- citric acid
A: NADH and FADH<sub>2</sub>

Q: In the first reaction of the citric acid cycle ________.
- glucose becomes pyruvate
- ATP is produced
- NADH is produced
- acetyl-CoA reacts with oxaloacetate to give citrate
- pyruvate becomes CO<sub>2</sub> and H<sub>2</sub>O
A: acetyl-CoA reacts with oxaloacetate to give citrate

Q: The citric acid cycle reaction that removes the first CO<sub>2</sub> molecule is a(n) ________.
- oxidation and decarboxylation
- reduction
- phosphorylation
- hydrolysis
- hydration
A: oxidation and decarboxylation

Q: In the third reaction of the citric acid cycle, NAD<sup>+ </sup>is converted to ________.
- NAS<sup>-</sup>
- NAD<sup>2+</sup>
- NADH<sub>2</sub>
- NAD
- NADH
A: NADH

Q: Reaction 5 of the citric acid cycle is the hydrolysis of succinyl-CoA. In this reaction, ________.
- the energy released is used to make GTP
- the energy released is used to make ATP
- carbon dioxide is released
- <i><img align="middle" height="17" width="8" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u945.gif"/></i>-ketoglutarate is released
- the enzyme aconitase is needed
A: the energy released is used to make GTP

Q: The GTP formed in reaction 5 of the citric acid cycle is used to make ________.
- carbon dioxide
- oxygen
- water
- CoA
- ATP
A: ATP

Q: In the dehydrogenation of succinate to fumarate in the citric acid cycle, the coenzyme used is ________.
- CoA
- acetyl-CoA
- NAD<sup>+</sup>
- NADH
- FAD
A: FAD

Q: In reaction 7 of the citric acid cycle, fumarate is converted to malate in a ________ reaction.
- hydrolysis
- dehydrogenation
- hydrogenation
- hydration
- dehydration
A: hydration

Q: The last reaction in the citric acid cycle converts malate to ________.
- citrate
- isocitrate
- succinate
- fumarate
- oxaloacetate
A: oxaloacetate

Q: Overall, one turn of the citric acid cycle produces ________.
- three CO<sub>2 </sub>molecules
- three NADH molecules
- two FADH<sub>2 </sub>molecules
- 6 ATP
- 2 GTP
A: three NADH molecules

Q: When combined with electron transport, one turn of the citric acid cycle produces ________ ATP.
- 24
- 12
- 11
- 14
- 2
A: 12

Q: Each acetyl-CoA produces a total of ________ ATP.
- 2
- 6
- 10
- 12
- 24
A: 12

Q: The complete oxidation of glucose produces ________ ATP molecules.
- 2
- 8
- 12
- 24
- 36
A: 36

Q: What is the correct coefficient for ATP in the complete combustion of glucose?<br/><br/><img align="bottom" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f63g1q62g1.gif"/><br/>
- 6
- 12
- 18
- 24
- 36
A: 36

Q: In the chemiosmotic model of oxidative phosphorylation, ATP is synthesized as ________.
- OH<sup>-</sup> flows through ATP synthase
- electrons flow through ATP synthase
- Ca<sup>2+</sup> flows through ATP synthase
- H<sup>+</sup> flows through ATP synthase
- Na<sup>+</sup> flows through ATP synthase
A: H<sup>+</sup> flows through ATP synthase

Q: The components of electron transport do not include ________.
- oxygen (O<sub>2</sub>)
- cytochrome<i> c</i>
- Complex II
- CoQ
- acetyl-CoA
A: acetyl-CoA

Q: In electron transport, the synthesis of ATP from ADP + P<sub>i</sub> is called ________.
- glycolysis
- acylation
- oxidative phosphorylation
- isomerization
- hydrolysis
A: oxidative phosphorylation

Q: The reduced coenzyme ________ provides two ATP via electron transport.
- FADH<sub>2</sub>
- NADH
- NADPH
- CoASH
- FNMH<sub>2</sub>
A: FADH<sub>2</sub>

Q: In electron transport, NADH and FADH<sub>2</sub> are used to provide ________.
- oxygen
- electrons and hydrogen ions
- carbon atoms
- water and carbon dioxide
- thiol groups
A: electrons and hydrogen ions

Q: The energy released during electron transport is used to produce ________.
- glucose
- citric acid
- carbon dioxide
- ATP
- NADH
A: ATP

Q: The compounds in electron transport that remove hydrogen ions and electrons from NADH are classified as ________.
- oxidative transporters
- osmotic carriers
- electron carriers
- phosphorylators
- citrates
A: electron carriers

Q: One example of an electron carrier in electron transport is ________.
- ATP
- GTP
- coenzyme Q
- citrate
- water
A: coenzyme Q

Q: In the chemiosmotic model, protons circulate through a protein complex called ________.
- iron-sulfur clusters
- FMA
- CoA
- CoQ
- ATP synthase
A: ATP synthase

Q: In the activation of a fatty acid, energy from the hydrolysis of ATP is used to ________.
- form a double bond in an oxidation reaction
- join the fatty acid to CoA
- add a molecule of water across a double bond to give a hydroxyl group on the <i><img align="middle" height="17" width="7" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u946.gif"/></i>-carbon
- oxidize the hydroxyl group on the <i><img align="middle" height="17" width="7" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u946.gif"/></i>-carbon
- cause a unit of acetyl-CoA to separate from the fatty acid chain
A: join the fatty acid to CoA

Q: The series of reactions that produce energy by hydrolyzing fats to units of acetyl-CoA is called ________.
- transamination
- <i><img align="middle" height="17" width="7" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u946.gif"/></i>-oxidation
- hydration
- hydrolysis
- <i><img align="middle" height="17" width="7" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u946.gif"/></i>-reduction
A: <i><img align="middle" height="17" width="7" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u946.gif"/></i>-oxidation

Q: Which step is found in the breakdown of a fatty acid?
- an activation that requires 2 ATP.
- an oxidation with a cytochrome <i>c</i>.
- an oxidation with CoQ.
- direct substrate phosphorylation.
- production of pyruvate.
A: an activation that requires 2 ATP.

Q: During complete oxidation of the fatty acid CH<sub>3</sub>-(CH<sub>2</sub>)<sub>18</sub>-COOH, ________ molecules of acetyl-CoA are produced, and the fatty acid goes through the <i><img align="middle" height="17" width="7" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u946.gif"/></i>-oxidation cycle ________ times.
- ten, ten
- nine, ten
- nine, nine
- nine, eight
- ten, nine
A: ten, nine

Q: What is the net number of ATP molecules produced from the lauric acid <br/>(C<sub>12</sub>H<sub>24</sub>O<sub>2</sub>) found in coconut oil?
- 72 ATP
- 90 ATP
- 100 ATP
- 97 ATP
- 95 ATP
A: 95 ATP

Q: The complete oxidation of CH<sub>3</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>(CH<sub>2</sub>)<sub>8</sub><img align="middle" height="17" width="11" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u57348.gif"/>COOH produces a net of ________ molecules of ATP.
- 80
- 78
- 82
- 74
- 76
A: 78

Q: The removal of 2-carbon segments of a fatty acid for further metabolism occurs during ________.
- <i><img align="middle" height="17" width="7" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u946.gif"/></i>-oxidation
- transamination
- deglyceration
- dehydration
- decarboxylation
A: <i><img align="middle" height="17" width="7" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u946.gif"/></i>-oxidation

Q: The 2-carbon segments removed from a fatty acid during metabolism are used to form ________.
- glucose
- pyruvate
- lactate
- CoA
- acetyl-CoA
A: acetyl-CoA

Q: The 2-carbon units obtained by degradation of a fatty acid are further metabolized in ________.
- oxidative deamination
- the citric acid cycle
- <i><img align="middle" height="17" width="7" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u946.gif"/></i>-oxidation
- glycolysis
- transamination
A: the citric acid cycle

Q: Myristic acid, a C<sub>14</sub> fatty acid, produces ________ acetyl-CoA when completely metabolized.
- 2
- 5
- 7
- 12
- 14
A: 7

Q: Myristic acid, a C<sub>14</sub> fatty acid, goes through the <i><img align="middle" height="17" width="7" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u946.gif"/></i>-oxidation cycle ________ times.
- 2
- 4
- 6
- 7
- 14
A: 6

Q: Ketosis is a condition that can occur if ________.
- ketone bodies cannot be completely metabolized
- too many ketones are ingested
- too much protein is available in the diet
- the brain is starved of glucose
- low fat intake occurs
A: ketone bodies cannot be completely metabolized

Q: Ketosis can lower the blood pH below 7.4, producing the condition ________.
- anemia
- hyponatremia
- hypokalemia
- acidosis
- alkalosis
A: acidosis

Q: In a(n) ________ reaction, NH<sub>4</sub><sup><sup>+</sup></sup> is produced when glutamate is converted to <i><img align="middle" height="17" width="8" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u945.gif"/></i>-ketoglutarate.
- dehydrogenation
- transamination
- oxidative deamination
- reduction
- hydration
A: oxidative deamination

Q: Which of the following does not require NAD<sup>+</sup>?
- glycolysis
- transamination
- citric acid cycle
- <i><img align="middle" height="17" width="7" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u946.gif"/></i>-oxidation
- oxidative deamination
A: transamination

Q: In mammals, the ammonium ion produced in oxidative deamination is ________.
- excreted in the feces
- stored in the liver
- converted to uric acid, which is excreted in the urine
- converted to urea, which is excreted in the urine
- converted to uric acid, which is excreted by the liver
A: converted to urea, which is excreted in the urine

Q: The term that refers to all of the chemical reactions in living cells is ________.
- glycolysis
- <i><img align="middle" height="17" width="7" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u946.gif"/></i>-oxidation
- metabolism
- anabolism
- catabolism
A: metabolism

Q: The energy for most energy-requiring reactions in the cells of the body is obtained by the hydrolysis of ________.
- ATP
- ADP
- AMP
- cyclic AMP
- GTP
A: ATP

Q: Most of the energy in the typical animal cell is produced in the ________.
- cytosol
- nucleus
- mitochondria
- lysosomes
- endoplasmic reticulum
A: mitochondria

Q: Hydrolysis of sucrose takes place primarily in the ________.
- mouth
- stomach
- pancreas
- small intestine
- large intestine
A: small intestine

Q: The net energy production in anaerobic glycolysis is ________.
- 2 ATP
- 4 ATP
- 6 ATP
- 8 ATP
- 12 ATP
A: 2 ATP

Q: Most of the energy in our bodies is stored in the form of ________.
- glycogen
- glucose
- proteins
- triacylglycerols
- cholesterol
A: triacylglycerols

Q: <i>In this figure, identify the metabolic substance numbered.<br/></i><img align="middle" height="716" width="601" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f65g1q1g1.jpg"/><br/><br/><br/>substance 1
A: proteins

Q: <i>In this figure, identify the metabolic substance numbered.<br/></i><img align="middle" height="716" width="601" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f65g1q2g1.jpg"/><br/><br/><br/>substance 2
Feedback: carbohydrates or polysaccharides

Q: <i>In this figure, identify the metabolic substance numbered.<br/></i><img align="middle" height="716" width="601" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f65g1q3g1.jpg"/><br/><br/><br/>substance 3
A: lipids

Q: <i>In this figure, identify the metabolic substance numbered.<br/></i><img align="middle" height="716" width="601" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f65g1q4g1.jpg"/><br/><br/><br/>substance 4
A: pyruvate

Q: <i>In this figure, identify the metabolic substance numbered.<br/></i><img align="middle" height="716" width="601" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f65g1q5g1.jpg"/><br/><br/><br/>substance 5
A: acetyl-CoA

Q: <i>In this figure, identify the metabolic substance numbered.<br/></i><img align="middle" height="716" width="601" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f65g1q6g1.jpg"/><br/><br/><br/>substance 6
A: carbon dioxide

Q: <i>In this figure, identify the metabolic substance numbered.<br/></i><img align="middle" height="716" width="601" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f65g1q7g1.jpg"/><br/><br/><br/>substance 7
A: ATP

Q: <i>In this figure, identify the metabolic substance numbered.<br/></i><img align="middle" height="716" width="601" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f65g1q8g1.jpg"/><br/><br/><br/>substance 8
A: oxygen

Q: <i>In this figure, identify the metabolic substance numbered.<br/></i><img align="middle" height="716" width="601" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f65g1q9g1.jpg"/><br/><br/><br/>process 9
Feedback: citric acid cycle or Krebs cycle or tricarboxylic acid cycle

Q: <i>In this figure, identify the metabolic substance numbered.<br/></i><img align="middle" height="716" width="601" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f65g1q10g1.jpg"/><br/><br/><br/>process 10
Feedback: oxidative phosphorylation

Q: <i>In this figure, identify the metabolic substance numbered.<br/></i><img align="middle" height="716" width="601" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f65g1q11g1.jpg"/><br/><br/><br/>process 11
A: electron transport

Q: <i>In this figure taken from your text, identify the substances shown.</i><p align="center"><i><img align="middle" height="319" width="337" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f65g1q12g1.jpg"/><br/></i></p><br/><br/>substance 12
A: acetyl-CoA

Q: <i>In this figure taken from your text, identify the substances shown.</i><p align="center"><i><img align="middle" height="319" width="337" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f65g1q13g1.jpg"/><br/></i></p><br/><br/>substance 13
A: citrate

Q: <i>In this figure taken from your text, identify the substances shown.</i><p align="center"><i><img align="middle" height="319" width="337" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f65g1q14g1.jpg"/><br/></i></p><br/><br/>substance 14
A: carbon dioxide

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Q: <i>In this figure taken from your text, identify the substances shown.</i><p align="center"><i><img align="middle" height="319" width="337" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f65g1q16g1.jpg"/><br/></i></p><br/><br/>substance 16
A: carbon dioxide

Q: <i>In this figure taken from your text, identify the substances shown.</i><p align="center"><i><img align="middle" height="319" width="337" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f65g1q17g1.jpg"/><br/></i></p><br/><br/>substance 17
A: succinyl-CoA

Q: <i>In this figure taken from your text, identify the substances shown.</i><p align="center"><i><img align="middle" height="319" width="337" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/f65g1q18g1.jpg"/><br/></i></p><br/><br/>substance 18
A: oxaloacetate

Q: Energy production in the cell occurs primarily in the nucleus.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: The cytosol is an aqueous solution of salts and enzymes.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Reactions in the mitochondria produce most of the cell's energy.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Digestion of a polysaccharide is an anabolic process.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: The production of carbon dioxide and water in the body is an anabolic process.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: ATP is the primary energy source for the cell.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Catabolic reactions provide energy to generate ATP in the cell.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: The conversion of ATP to ADP and inorganic phosphate produces 7.3 kcal/mole of energy.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Protein digestion begins in the small intestine.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: Carbohydrate digestion begins in the mouth.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: Chylomicrons consist of bile salts and lipids.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: Oxidation involves the gain of electrons for a substance.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: NAD<sup>+</sup> acts as a hydrogen acceptor in metabolic reactions.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: FADH<sub>2 </sub>is the oxidized form of FAD.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: The end product of glycolysis is pyruvate.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: The citric acid cycle involves two decarboxylation reactions.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: In the chemiosmotic model, protons flow through ATP synthase.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: The total energy obtained from the degradation of a fatty acid depends on the carbon chain length.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: A 10 carbon fatty acid goes through <i><img align="middle" height="17" width="7" src="ppg/pearson/tm/ichem12t/u946.gif"/>-oxidation </i>10 times.
- True
- False
A: False

Q: Ammonium ions and carbon dioxide combine to produce urea in the urea cycle.
- True
- False
A: True

Q: The urea cycle is the major pathway for eliminating the excess nitrogen from amino acid degradation in mammals.
- True
- False
A: True

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