Title: MID- TERM EXAM
Course: RITA MC - ITNW 1354

Q: Windows Deployment Services (WDS) is a software platform and technology that allows you to perform which function?
- automated staging setup for bootable images
- automated network-based installations based on network-based boot and installation media
- downloadable installations based on staged image files
- automated configuration and installation via ISO images and an FTP service
A: automated network-based installations based on network-based boot and installation media
Feedback: This is the definition of Windows Deployment Services: a software platform and technology that allows you to perform automated network-based installations based on network-based boot and installation media.

Q: Which two role services does the WDS Role include?
- Active Directory and Systems Management Server
- Deployment Server and Active Directory
- Transport Server and Systems Management Server
- Transport Server and Deployment Server
A: Transport Server and Deployment Server
Feedback: Transport Server and Deployment Server are the defined role components of WDS.

Q: What role does preboot execution environment (PXE) play in WDS?
- It’s used to boot to a WDS Server to install a preinstallation environment.
- It’s used to install WDS services onto a domain controller.
- PXE is enabled only in an interdomain trust environment.
- It’s a prerequisite for installing WDS services onto a deployment server system.
A: It’s used to boot to a WDS Server to install a preinstallation environment.
Feedback: To communicate with a WDS server without an operating system, the client computer must support preboot execution environment (PXE). The PXE technology boots computers using the network interface without a data storage device, such as a hard drive or an installed operating system. When PXE is used with WDS, the client computer downloads a boot image that loads Windows Preinstallation Environment (Windows PE).

Q: You can configure Windows Server Update Service (WSUS) in one of two modes: Autonomous or Replica. Autonomous provides one type of management and Replica provides another. What are the two management types?
- Upstream and Approval
- Distributed and Upstream
- Distributed and Central
- Central and Downstream
A: Distributed and Central
Feedback: You can configure WSUS in one of two modes. Autonomous mode offers distributed management, and Replica mode offers central management.

Q: What two ways can you assign computers to groups in WSUS?
- Client-side and Server-side targeting
- Upstream and Downstream targeting
- Client-side and Upstream targeting
- Downstream and Distributed targeting
A: Client-side and Server-side targeting
Feedback: To assign computers to groups, use Server-side targeting, where you manually assign the computer to a group, or Client-side targeting, in which the computers are automatically assigned to a computer group by using group policies or in which someone manually modifies the registry.

Q: WSUS allows you to automatically approve every update, but you shouldn’t necessarily do that. What should you do before approving updates to be installed?
- Check with Microsoft about which updates to apply.
- Move the updates into quarantine and wait for others to report problems.
- Approve all updates after the normal installation date.
- Test the updates on your own systems before approving for rollout.
A: Test the updates on your own systems before approving for rollout.
Feedback: Although you can have updates automatically approve every update that is downloaded from Windows Update, you shouldn't do that until you've had an opportunity to test the updates. Updates are thoroughly tested by Microsoft, but every organization is different; a single update might cause unforeseen problems affecting hundreds of computers.

Q: You work for an organization that has a mix of Windows 7, Windows 8, and Windows 8.1 computers. You will be using WSUS to deploy Microsoft updates to these computers. What is the minimum number of WSUS computer groups required for the updates?
- none
- one
- two
- three
A: one
Feedback: If you have a mix of Windows updates, you dont have to put the computers into computer groups based on operating system. Instead, you can deploy the updates as you deploy any other updates. If the update does not apply to the system because the update was specified for one version of Windows yet the system has another version, the patch will not be deployed to the system and the WSUS console will show that the patch was not needed.

Q: What function does a computer perform when it’s issued the command wecutil qc?
- event collecting
- event receiving
- event extracting
- event collating
A: event receiving
Feedback: By executing the wecutil qc command, you configure the receiving computer to receive events.

Q: The Reliability Monitor provides a range of numbers to help you evaluate the reliability of a computer. What is the name of this range of numbers?
- Reliability Index
- Stability Index
- Event Index
- Evaluation Index
A: Stability Index
Feedback: The Reliability Monitor provides a stability index that ranges from 1 (the least stable) to 10 (the most stable). You can use the index to help evaluate the reliability of your computer.

Q: What can Task Manager tell you about performance?
- that your system needs to be replaced
- that you need a larger hard drive
- that you need to reboot the system
- that you might have a bottleneck
A: that you might have a bottleneck
Feedback: Task Manager is one of the handiest programs you can use to take a quick glance at performance to see which programs are using the most system resources on your computer.

Q: How do you secure DFS Namespaces?
- NTFS permissions
- shared folder permissions
- NTFS and shared folder permissions
- specialized DFS folder permissions
A: NTFS and shared folder permissions
Feedback: Because DFS Namespace is a specialized shared folder of shared folders, you still secure these folders with share permissions and NTFS permissions.

Q: What is the primary disadvantage of DFS Replication?
- additional network bandwidth required
- additional CPU power required
- additional memory required
- additional storage space required
A: additional storage space required
Feedback: The primary disadvantage of using DFS Replication is that you need to have sufficient storage space available on each server that hosts the server. You also need extra space so that DFS Replication can process the replication.

Q: DFS Replication does not replace the need for backups because of what feature of replication?
- It fails with more than 8 million files per volume.
- It replicates deleted, changed, and corrupted files.
- The frequency of replication is too seldom.
- It has a very small cache in which to store files.
A: It replicates deleted, changed, and corrupted files.
Feedback: DFS Replication is not a replacement for backups. If a file gets deleted, changed, or corrupted on one target server, it will most likely be deleted, changed, or corrupted on the other target servers. Therefore, you still need to use backups to provide data protection and recovery.

Q: When setting target priority on a root target for a domain-based namespace, you can override referral ordering and select the priority you want to use. What does the “Last among targets of equal cost” option specify?
- Users should always be referred to this target if the target is available.
- Users should never be referred to this target unless all other targets are unavailable.
- Users should be referred to this target before other targets of equal cost (which usually means other targets in the same site).
- Users should never be referred to this target if other targets of equal cost are available (which usually means other targets in the same site).
A: Users should never be referred to this target if other targets of equal cost are available (which usually means other targets in the same site).
Feedback: Refer to the procedural steps for Setting Target Priority on a Root Target for a Domain-Based Namespace.

Q: What type of service is the Windows File Server Resource Manager?
- quota
- role
- third-party add-on
- extension
A: role
Feedback: Similar to the previous Windows server roles, File Server Resource Manager (FSRM) is installed with Server Manager as a server role.

Q: What effect does using quotas in File Server Resource Manager have?
- It limits the number of files allocated to a user.
- It limits the number of access licenses allotted to a server.
- It limits the number of drive mappings to a shared resource.
- It limits the number of gigabytes allocated to a volume or folder.
A: It limits the number of gigabytes allocated to a volume or folder.
Feedback: By using FSRM to create a quota, you limit the amount of disk space allocated to a volume or folder.

Q: After a file has been encrypted, it is stored in what format?
- hidden
- executable
- encrypted
- converted
A: encrypted
Feedback: After a user encrypts a file, it automatically remains encrypted when the file is stored on disk.

Q: Single-key encryption is also known as what kind of encryption?
- hash
- simple
- signal
- symmetric
A: symmetric
Feedback: Because symmetric encryption uses a single key to encrypt and decrypt data, it is also referred to as secret-key encryption.

Q: You can encrypt individual files, but Microsoft recommends encrypting at what level?
- file system
- drive
- file group
- folder
A: folder
Feedback: Microsoft recommends that you encrypt at the folder level.

Q: BitLocker has multiple operational modes for OS drives that define the steps involved in the boot process. Match the TPM only BitLocker mode with its correct description.
- The system stores the BitLocker volume encryption key on the TPM chip, but you must supply a personal identification number (PIN) and insert a USB flash drive containing a startup key before the system can unlock the BitLocker volume and complete the system boot sequence.
- The system stores the BitLocker volume encryption key on the TPM chip and accesses it automatically when the chip has determined that the boot environment is unmodified. This unlocks the protected volume and the computer continues to boot. No administrative interaction is required during the system boot sequence.
- The system stores the BitLocker volume encryption key on the TPM chip, but you must supply a PIN before the system can unlock the BitLocker volume and complete the system boot sequence.
- The system stores the BitLocker volume encryption key on the TPM chip, but you must insert a USB flash drive containing a startup key before the system can unlock the BitLocker volume and complete the system boot sequence.
A: The system stores the BitLocker volume encryption key on the TPM chip and accesses it automatically when the chip has determined that the boot environment is unmodified. This unlocks the protected volume and the computer continues to boot. No administrative interaction is required during the system boot sequence.
Feedback: With TPM only, the system stores the BitLocker volume encryption key on the TPM chip and accesses it automatically when the chip has determined that the boot environment is unmodified. This unlocks the protected volume and the computer continues to boot. No administrative interaction is required during the system boot sequence.

Q: What happens to files and subfolders within an EFS encrypted folder?
- Nothing; they must be encrypted individually.
- They’re encrypted but at a lower encryption level.
- They’re left unencrypted but hidden.
- They’re encrypted with the parent folder.
A: They’re encrypted with the parent folder.
Feedback: If you encrypt a folder, all files and subfolders created in the encrypted folder are automatically encrypted.

Q: EFS encryption is what type of feature that can be enabled or disabled at will, similar in effect to read-only, compression, or hidden?
- status
- characteristic
- attribute
- handle
A: attribute
Feedback: To encrypt or decrypt a folder or file, enable or disable the encryption attribute just as you set any other attribute, such as read-only, compressed, or hidden.

Q: If you’re a command-line user, what command will encrypt files and folders?
- encrypt.exe
- compress.exe
- efs.exe
- cipher.exe
A: cipher.exe
Feedback: The cipher.exe command displays or alters the encryption of folders and files on NTFS volumes.

Q: Authentication is used for what purpose?
- to grant access to a user
- to verify a user’s identity
- to determine security restrictions
- to calculate effective permissions
A: to verify a user’s identity
Feedback: Authentication is used to prove the identity of a user.

Q: Authorization is used for what purpose?
- to grant access to a user
- to verify a user’s identity
- to determine security restrictions
- to calculate effective permissions
A: to grant access to a user
Feedback: Authorization gives access to an authenticated user.

Q: Auditing is used for what purpose?
- authenticating users
- authorizing users
- recording user’s actions
- assessing a user’s permissions
A: recording user’s actions
Feedback: Auditing keeps a record of users who have logged on, what they accessed or tried to access, and what actions they performed such as rebooting, shutting down a computer, or accessing a file.

Q: The Domain Name System (DNS) works much like a phone book to associate URLs (names) with what kinds of numbers?
- ID numbers
- World Wide Web numbers
- domain addresses
- IP addresses
A: IP addresses
Feedback: The Domain Name System (DNS) is a naming service used by TCP/IP networks and the Internet. Every time a user accesses a web page, that user must type a URL. Before the client communicates with the web server, the client computer needs to use DNS to retrieve the IP address of the web server, similarly to someone using a phone book to find a phone number.

Q: Which TCP/UDP port does the DNS service use to communicate?
- 25
- 53
- 80
- 443
A: 53
Feedback: A DNS resolver is a service that uses the DNS protocol to query for information about DNS servers using UDP and TCP port 53.

Q: What does the acronym FQDN stand for?
- File Quota Domain Number
- Fully Qualified Domain Number
- Fully Qualified Domain Name
- Full Query Domain Name
A: Fully Qualified Domain Name
Feedback: DNS uses fully qualified domain names (FQDNs) to map a host name to an IP address.

Q: Which one of the following is an example of an FQDN?
- SERVER1
- 192.168.1.50
- sales.microsoft.com
- C:\WINDOWS\SYSTEM32\DRIVERS\ETC\HOSTS
A: sales.microsoft.com
Feedback: The URL computer1.sales.microsoft.com represents an FQDN: the computer1 host is located in the sales domain, which is located in the Microsoft second-level domain, which is located in the .com top-level domain. Both sales.microsoft.com and computer1.sales.microsoft.com are examples of FQDNs.

Q: What type of structure does DNS have?
- hierarchical distributed
- flat distributed
- top-down distributed
- wheel-spoke distributed
A: hierarchical distributed
Feedback: DNS is a hierarchical distributed naming system used to locate computers and services on a TCP/IP network.

Q: What is another designation for an Alias?
- A host or A record
- canonical name or CNAME
- pointer or PTR record
- Name Server or NS record
A: canonical name or CNAME
Feedback: A Canonical Name (CNAME) record-sometimes referred to as an Alias-maps an alias DNS domain name to another primary or canonical name.

Q: What does Time to Live (TTL) mean in DNS parlance?
- the length of time it takes a DNS query to process
- the length of time required to process an iterative query
- the length of time between zone updates
- the length of time a record remains in DNS cache
A: the length of time a record remains in DNS cache
Feedback: The Time to Live (TTL) value defines the default time a resource record remains in a DNS cache after a DNS query has retrieved a record. If a resource record has its own TTL value, that value is used instead of the TTL defined in the SOA record.

Q: How can you force a system to update its DNS record?
- Change IP addresses.
- Disable/enable the NIC.
- Execute ipconfig /flushdns.
- Execute ipconfig /registerdns.
A: Execute ipconfig /registerdns.
Feedback: The ipconfig /registerdns command initiates manual dynamic registration for the DNS names and IP addresses configured on a computer. You can use this parameter to troubleshoot a failed DNS name registration or resolve a dynamic update problem between a client and the DNS server without rebooting the client computer.

Q: When is it appropriate to use Windows Server 2012 as a router between two networks?
- for heavy traffic on large networks
- for heavy traffic on small networks
- for light traffic on large networks
- for light traffic on small networks
A: for light traffic on small networks
Feedback: Windows Server 2012 is a software-based router that you can use for lightly trafficked subnets on a small network. For more complex network with heavy network traffic, you should use a hardware-based router, which would give you more reliability and improved network performance.

Q: Which Windows Server 2012 R2 server role is used to install the Web Application proxy for AD FS?
- AD FS
- Remote Access
- Remote Desktop
- Web Services
A: Remote Access
Feedback: The Web Application proxy is a Remote Access role service introduced in Windows Server 2012 R2 that provides reverse proxy functionality for web applications inside an organization network so users can access applications externally no matter what device they are using.

Q: In Windows Server 2012 R2, what is used as a reverse proxy?
- Web Application proxy
- Reverse Lookup
- AD FS proxy
- Reverse Web
A: Web Application proxy
Feedback: A Web reverse proxy is a proxy server that retrieves resources from servers on behalf of a client by publishing internal applications to external users or publishing applications (although mostly external) to internal users. In Windows Server 2012 R2, a reverse proxy is provided by a Remote Access Role service: the Web Application proxy.

Q: RRAS has multiple options from which you can select one or more services to provide your users. Select the correct description for the Secure connection between two private networks option.
- sets up the server to provide NAT services to clients on the private network that need to access the Internet
- sets up a demand-dial or persistent connection between two private networks
- sets up the server to support incoming VPN connections and to provide NAT services
- sets up the server to accept incoming remote access connections (dial-up or VPN)
A: sets up a demand-dial or persistent connection between two private networks
Feedback: The Secure connection between two private networks option sets up a demand-dial or persistent connection between two private networks.

Q: What kind of connectivity does DirectAccess establish between workstation and server?
- uni-directional
- bi-directional
- PPTP
- virtual private network (VPN)
A: bi-directional
Feedback: DirectAccess overcomes the limitations of VPNs by automatically establishing a bi-directional connection from client computers to the organizations network.

Q: What type of server is the network location server (NLS)?
- DNS
- DHCP
- web
- AD
A: web
Feedback: DirectAccess clients use the network location server (NLS) to determine their locations. The network location server is an internal web server.

Q: What utility do you use to configure DirectAccess?
- DNS Console
- Active Directory Console
- Remote Access Management Console
- DirectAccess Console
A: Remote Access Management Console
Feedback: To configure DirectAccess itself, you use the Remote Access Management console, which enables you to configure DirectAccess using a visual step-by-step wizard or wizards.

Q: What kind of RADIUS server is placed between the RADIUS server and RADIUS clients?
- a RADIUS client server
- a RADIUS engine server
- a RADIUS proxy server
- a RADIUS relay server
A: a RADIUS proxy server
Feedback: A multiple RADIUS server infrastructure option is to place a RADIUS proxy between the RADIUS server and the RADIUS clients. A RADIUS proxy forwards authentication and accounting messages to other RADIUS servers.

Q: Why is password-based authentication not recommended?
- Passwords are too easy to guess.
- Usernames and passwords are sent in plain text.
- Usernames are too easy to guess.
- Username and password authentication is too slow.
A: Usernames and passwords are sent in plain text.
Feedback: Password Authentication Protocol (PAP) is never recommended because the username and password are sent in plain text.

Q: When setting up authentication to NPS services for Microsoft-only clients, what type of authentication should you always use?
- PAP
- CHAP
- MS-CHAP
- MS-CHAPv2
A: MS-CHAPv2
Feedback: If you use only Microsoft clients, you should allow only Microsoft Challenge-Handshake Protocol v2 (MS-CHAPv2).

Q: You would create a RADIUS template so that you can do what with it?
- Easily create multiple RADIUS servers from it.
- Consistently create multiple RADIUS servers from it.
- Create RADIUS servers without affecting the functionality of NPS.
- Apply it to selected servers.
A: Easily create multiple RADIUS servers from it.
Feedback: Much like the use of other templates, RADIUS templates-especially RADIUS clients and Remote RADIUS servers-are designed to reduce the amount of time and cost that it takes to configure RADIUS on one or more servers.