Title: FINAL EXAMINATION
Course: RITA MC - ITNW 1308 > Section: Final

Q: What are the buttons called in the Windows 8.1 edge UI that provide access to common operating system functions such as Search and Settings?
- Tiles
- Charms
- Beads
- Icons
A: Charms
Feedback: The edge UI contains a series of buttons called charms, which provide access to common operating system functions, including the following: - Search: Enables you to perform a system-wide search for apps, settings, or files, based on a word or phrase appearing in the element’s name or in its content - Share: Provides access to the bidirectional sharing options for the currently selected app - Start: Toggles between the Start screen and the Windows Desktop - Devices: Provides quick access to hardware devices, such as printers, which you can use with the currently selected app - Settings: Provides access to a Settings bar containing operating system controls specific to the current screen

Q: What two actions will cause the All Apps button to appear, which will allow you to access a screen full of your tiles representing all of the applications installed on the Windows 8.1 computer? (Choose two answers.)
- Swiping down from the top of the screen
- Right-clicking on the Start screen background
- Swiping up from the bottom of the screen
- Double-clicking on the Start screen background
A: Right-clicking on the Start screen background; Swiping up from the bottom of the screen
Feedback: Swiping up from the bottom of the screen or right-clicking on the Start screen background displays an All Apps button, which leads to an Apps screen full of small tiles representing all of the applications installed on the computer. This is the closest equivalent to the Start menu of previous versions in Windows 8.1.

Q: Which of the following methods is not a way to close unused apps that are still running on a Windows 8.1 computer?
- On the thumbnail bar, drag a thumbnail to the bottom of the screen or right-click a thumbnail and select Close from the context menu.
- On a full screen app, tap or mouse over the top of the screen and, when the cursor changes to a hand, drag it down to the bottom of the screen.
- Press Windows+C on the keyboard.
- Press Alt+F4 on the keyboard.
A: Press Windows+C on the keyboard.
Feedback: You would not use the Windows+C keyboard command to close an application; this keyboard combination actually opens the Charms bar.

Q: Which of the following is not a limitation of the MS-DOS boot environment that was eventually replaced with Windows PE?
- Limited disk support
- No internal networking support
- Limited script support
- No boot from CD capability
A: No boot from CD capability
Feedback: The need for an MS-DOS boot became increasingly problematic over the years for several reasons, including the following: - Limited disk support - No internal networking support - Limited script support - Boot device limitations (however, booting from a CD was never an issue)

Q: How can you go about obtaining Windows PE 4.0 for usage in your organization?
- Download the Windows 8.1 Assessment and Deployment Kit
- Download through the MS Volume Licensing center using your service agreement
- Purchase from an OEM with new Windows 8.1 certified hardware
- Use the Windows Store to purchase and download Windows PE
A: Download the Windows 8.1 Assessment and Deployment Kit
Feedback: The most important development in the latest versions of Windows PE (3.0 and 4.0) is that anyone can obtain them. Prior to Windows 7, Microsoft made Windows PE available only to customers with service agreements. Now it’s available for free in a standalone version as part of the Windows 8.1 Assessment and Deployment Kit (ADK).

Q: Which component of the Windows 8.1 Assessment and Deployment Kit (ADK) enables administrators to migrate user profile information to newly installed Windows 8.1 workstations?
- Application Compatibility Toolkit
- User State Migration Tool
- Volume Activation Management Tool
- Windows Assessment Toolkit
A: User State Migration Tool
Feedback: The User State Migration Tool (USMT) contains scriptable command-line tools that enable administrators to migrate user profile information to newly installed Windows 8.1 workstations.

Q: Which of the following folders is not found as part of a default user profile?
- Desktop
- My Music
- My Contacts
- AppData
A: My Contacts
Feedback: A typical user profile consists of the following folders, some of which are hidden, plus a hidden registry file: - AppData - Contacts - Desktop - Downloads - Favorites - Links - My Documents - My Music - My Pictures - My Videos - Saved Games - Searches

Q: On which tab of an Active Directory user’s account object would you configure a roaming profile path?
- Account
- Profile
- Environment
- Sessions
A: Profile
Feedback: To enable a user to access a roaming user profile rather than a local profile, you must open the users Properties sheet to the Profile tab and specify the location of the roaming profile in the Profile Path field.

Q: What is the name used for the file that contains a mandatory profile?
- Ntuser.dat
- Ntuser.man
- Ntuser.pro
- Ntuser.mdp
A: Ntuser.man
Feedback: To create a mandatory user profile, you rename the Ntuser.dat file in the folder containing the roaming profile to Ntuser.man. The Ntuser.dat file consists of the Windows 8.1 system registry settings that apply to the individual user account and contains the user environment settings, such as those controlling the appearance of the desktop.

Q: To communicate with the operating system running on the computer, each device also requires a software element known as what?
- Device configuration
- Memory allocation
- System bus reservation
- Device driver
A: Device driver
Feedback: To communicate with the operating system running on the computer, each device also requires a software element called a device driver. The device driver provides the operating system with information about a specific device.

Q: You have opened the Properties dialog box for an installed printer on your computer system. On what tab will you find information that is specific to this piece of installed hardware on your computer system?
- General
- Advanced
- Device Settings
- Ports
A: Device Settings
Feedback: The information and configurable settings found on the Device Settings tab are based on hardware-specific information provided by the device driver.

Q: Why are the device drivers for graphics adapters considered to be more problematic than drivers for other devices? (Choose all that apply.)
- The device driver is likely to be revised more often.
- The device driver is likely to be simple to install and without adequate documentation.
- The device driver is less likely to be included with the operating system.
- The device driver is more likely to cause compatibility or functionality problems.
A: The device driver is likely to be revised more often.; The device driver is less likely to be included with the operating system.; The device driver is more likely to cause compatibility or functionality problems.
Feedback: Many of the graphics adapters on the market are really self-contained computers in themselves, with their own processors and memory. The drivers for these complex devices are equally complex, and are often much more problematic than simple keyboard drivers for the following reasons: - The device driver is likely to be revised more often: Drivers that are required to do more are more likely to have problems. Generic keyboard drivers can go for years without upgrades, because keyboards rarely change. Manufacturers often release new graphics adapters, however, and therefore require new drivers as well. - The device driver is less likely to be included with the operating system: The Windows 8.1 installation disk includes hundreds of device drivers, but the older the operating system gets, the less likely it is to include the latest drivers for the newest devices. In these cases, you must obtain the drivers you need from the hardware manufacturer and install them yourself. - The device driver is more likely to cause compatibility or functionality problems: New devices are often rushed to market, and as a result, the drivers that ship with them might not be fully debugged. This is particularly true with graphic adapter drivers. It is a good idea to always check the manufacturer’s web site for the latest drivers before installing new hardware.

Q: When a specific file type, such as .mp3, can be opened by many different applications, how can you configure Windows 8.1 to use a specific application to open an .mp3 file that is double-clicked?
- Use Windows Explorer to select a default application.
- Use the Start screen to select a default application.
- Use the Pick an application to open this file link in the Default Programs control panel.
- Use the Set your default programs link in the Default Programs control panel.
A: Use the Pick an application to open this file link in the Default Programs control panel.
Feedback: When you click the Set your default programs link in the Default Programs control panel, the Set your default programs page appears. On this page, the Programs box contains a list of all the applications on the system, those installed by default with the Windows 8.1 operating system and those that you installed afterward, either through the desktop or the Windows Store. When you select a program from the list, the rest of the page contains information about the program and about the current status of its default file types. In addition, there are two links at the bottom of the page as follows: - Set this program as default: If the program is not currently associated with all of its default file types, this link resets those defaults. - Choose defaults for this program: Opens the Set program associations page, in which you can select the file types that you want to associate with the program.

Q: You have PhotoShop Elements installed on your Windows 8.1 computer. You want PhotoShop Elements to automatically be launched every time you plug in a memory card that contains photos. What setting do you need modify?
- Media handling settings
- Autoplay settings
- Default application settings
- Extension provider settings
A: Autoplay settings
Feedback: You will want to click the Change Autoplay settings link in the Default Programs control panel to be able to set this configuration.

Q: What is the largest danger that high-capacity removable storage devices pose to an enterprise network?
- Data can be brought into the network that is not authorized.
- Data can be taken out of the network without authorization.
- Data can be brought into the network that is unsafe.
- Data is being insufficiently backed up more often than not when placed on removable storage.
A: Data can be taken out of the network without authorization.
Feedback: High-capacity removable disks and drives are dangerous to enterprise networks in that they can allow data in, as well as carry it out. Users can easily introduce unauthorized software into the environment, and they can also copy corporate data and carry it out. Exfiltration of data in an unauthorized fashion, or without required protections (e.g., encryption) poses the largest danger to enterprise networks when dealing with removable storage devices.

Q: When using the Allow/Prevent installation of devices that match any of these device IDs setting in the Device Installation Restrictions folder of a GPO, what other setting must you ensure you also configure to provide the intended results?
- Allow/Prevent installation of devices using drivers that match these device setup classes.
- Prevent installation of devices not described by other policy settings.
- Allow administrators to override Device Installation Restriction policies.
- Prevent installation of devices with unsigned drivers.
A: Prevent installation of devices not described by other policy settings.
Feedback: Using the Allow/Prevent installation of devices that match any of these device IDs option enables you to allow or prevent installation or update of device drivers based on their Plug and Play hardware IDs. Use this Allow setting only when the Prevent installation of devices not described by other policy settings is also enabled.

Q: What feature does IE 11 offer that enables it to correctly display pages that were developed using older technologies?
- Legacy Mode
- Compatibility Mode
- Compatibility View
- Legacy View
A: Compatibility View
Feedback: The problem with this regular development is that many of the pages on the Internet still conform to older versions of the standards, and IE 11 might not display them properly. To accommodate these older pages, IE 11 includes a feature called Compatibility View, which enables the browser to display older pages properly.

Q: IE 11 supports multiple types of add-ons that can be used to extend the functionality of IE 11. Which of the following is not a supported add-on type?
- Accelerators
- Toolbars and Extensions
- Search Providers
- Shell Extensions
A: Shell Extensions
Feedback: The four basic types of add-ons supported by IE are as follows: - Toolbars and Extensions: Enable the browser to open and manipulate web sites or file types that IE does not support natively. Some applications add their own toolbars to IE, enabling you to work with their documents within an IE session. - Search Providers: Enable the user to perform searches directly from the IE interface using search engines on the Internet or the local network. - Accelerators: Enable users to send text or other media they select in an IE browser window to another application, such as an email client, or an Internet resource, such as a blog. - Tracking Protection: Enables users to install or maintain a list of sites that the IE should prevent from sharing your browsing habits with other sites.

Q: What keeps the parent operating system separate from that of the virtual machines that are running on that host?
- Hyper-V
- The Hypervisor
- The SLAT processor
- The dynamic memory manager
A: The Hypervisor
Feedback: The Hypervisor keeps the host or parent operating system separate from all the virtual machines installed. This allows for the installation and running of multiple child operating systems as separate and secure virtual machines, all within one physical computer.

Q: Before Hyper-V can be used, there are several requirements that must be met. Which of these is not one of those requirements? (Choose all that apply.)
- Windows 8.1 Enterprise edition (32-bit)
- 4 GB RAM
- Second Level Address Translation (SLAT) processor
- Rapid Virtualization Indexing (RVI) BIOS
A: Windows 8.1 Enterprise edition (32-bit); Rapid Virtualization Indexing (RVI) BIOS
Feedback: The requirements for Hyper-V are: - Windows 8.1 Pro or Enterprise edition (64-bit) - Second Level Address Translation (SLAT) processor - 4 GB RAM

Q: In the OSI model, which layer is at the bottom and represents the hardware that forms the network?
- Data-Link
- Physical
- Network
- Transport
A: Physical
Feedback: At the bottom of the OSI model is the physical layer, which represents the hardware that forms the network. The physical layer of the OSI model consists of the cable or the radio signals that carry data from one system to another, as well as the network interface adapters, which are the hardware components in the computers that provide the connection to the physical network.

Q: Most cabled networks today use what type of cabling?
- Coaxial
- Unshielded twisted pair
- Shielded twisted pair
- Fiber optic
A: Unshielded twisted pair
Feedback: Most cabled networks use a type of cable called unshielded twisted pair (UTP), which is similar to the cable used for telephone wiring. UTP cable consists of four pairs of wires, with each pair twisted individually. At either end of each cable run are modular 8P8C connectors (often incorrectly referred to as RJ45 connectors), which are similar to the RJ11 connectors used for telephones.

Q: What type of attack is occurring when attackers are replaying data packets on a wireless network?
- Eavesdropping
- Masquerading
- Data tampering
- Denial of service
A: Data tampering
Feedback: Data tampering attacks come in many types. Attackers can delete, replay, or modify wireless communications with a man-in-the-middle attack. A man-in-the-middle attack is when an intruder intercepts network communications and modifies the contents of the packets before sending them on to their destination.

Q: A 2x2 MIMO device has how many total transceivers?
- Two
- Four
- One
- Eight
A: Four
Feedback: IEEE 802.11n equipment increases wireless networking speeds by using multiple transmitter and receiver antennae on each device in a process called multiple-input multiple-output (MIMO). For example, a device using a 2x2 MIMO format has two transmitters and two receivers, operating at different frequencies.

Q: What term is given to software that includes viruses, Trojan horses, worms, spyware, and adware?
- Scareware
- Malware
- Phishing
- Bloatware
A: Malware
Feedback: Malicious software, created specifically for the purpose of infiltrating or damaging a computer system without the user’s knowledge or consent, includes a variety of technologies such as viruses, Trojan horses, worms, spyware, and adware. The term most commonly used to collectively refer to these malicious software technologies is malware.

Q: In most cases, how is malware introduced into a computer system?
- Through a deliberate act of a bad actor (attacker)
- Through an accidental act of the computer’s user
- Through a deliberate act of the computer’s user
- Through an accidental act of a bad actor (attacker)
A: Through a deliberate act of the computer’s user
Feedback: Malware is, in most cases, introduced onto a computer by a deliberate action on the part of a user. Someone opens an email attachment, installs an infected program, or accesses a dangerous web site, and the malicious code is introduced to the system.

Q: What two options are available to access a remote computer using a Microsoft Management Console (MMC) snap-in? (Choose two.)
- Start the console using alternate credentials
- Create a custom console with snap-ins directed to other systems
- Redirect an existing snap-in to another system
- Create a shortcut to the administrative share on another system
A: Create a custom console with snap-ins directed to other systems; Redirect an existing snap-in to another system
Feedback: There are two ways to access a remote computer using a Microsoft Management Console (MMC) snap-in: - Redirect an existing snap-in to another system - Create a custom console with snap-ins directed to other systems

Q: Why do some snap-ins, such as the Active Directory Domain Services consoles, not provide a means to redirect the console to another computer?
- Doing so could lead to AD DS database corruption.
- The console will automatically locate a domain controller.
- The console asks you configure a domain controller upon first launch.
- Doing so would put administrative credentials in clear text on the network.
A: The console will automatically locate a domain controller.
Feedback: Not every snap-in has the ability to connect to a remote computer because some do not need it. For example, the Active Directory Domain Services consoles automatically locate a domain controller for the current domain and access the directory service from there. There is no need to specify a computer name.

Q: Windows 8.1 provides three basic methods for sharing the files and folders on the computer. Which of the listed items is not one of these methods?
- Any folder sharing
- Public folder sharing
- All folder sharing
- Homegroup sharing
A: All folder sharing
Feedback: Windows 8.1 provides three basic methods for sharing the files and folders on the computer: any folder sharing, public folder sharing, and homegroup sharing.

Q: Which of the following statements is true of Public folder sharing?
- Shares files from any location
- Shares files from their original locations
- Shares files from their default library locations
- Places all shared files in a single location
A: Places all shared files in a single location
Feedback: Public folder sharing requires you to copy or move files to be shared to the Public folder.

Q: An access control list (ACL) is a collection of individual permissions, which are called what?
- Access control list objects
- Access control entries
- Discretionary access control security
- Permissions descriptions
A: Access control entries
Feedback: An ACL is a collection of individual permissions, in the form of access control entries (ACEs). Each ACE consists of a security principal (that is, the name of the user, group, or computer being granted the permissions) and the specific permissions assigned to that security principal. When you manage permissions in any of the Windows 8.1 permission systems, you are actually creating and modifying the ACEs in an ACL.

Q: How many basic and advanced permissions does NTFS provide for assignment to a folder or file?
- 24 basic, 6 advanced
- 6 basic, 4 advanced
- 16 basic, 24 advanced
- 6 basic, 14 advanced
A: 6 basic, 14 advanced
Feedback: The NTFS permission system has 14 advanced permissions that you can assign to a folder or file. However, there are also six basic permissions, which are various combinations of the 14 advanced permissions.

Q: Digital certificates, smart cards, picture passwords, and biometrics are used to perform what action?
- Integrity
- Confidentiality
- Authorization
- Authentication
A: Authentication
Feedback: Authentication is the process of verifying that the identity of the person operating the computer is the same as the user account the person is employing to gain access. Typically, to be authenticated, the human user must supply some piece of information associated with the user account, such as a password; demonstrate some personal characteristic, such as a fingerprint; or prove access to an identifying possession, such as a smart card.

Q: Which of the following items is not supported as a method of authentication in Windows 8.1?
- Picture passwords
- Biometrics
- PIN passwords
- One-time passwords
A: One-time passwords
Feedback: Windows 8.1 supports the following methods of authentication: passwords, picture passwords, digital certificates, smart cards, and biometrics. Windows 8.1 also supports PIN passwords on mobile devices.

Q: You must deploy at least one or more BranchCache-enabled servers at your main office to enable BranchCache. Which of the following server types is not an option as aBranchCache-enabled server?
- FTP servers
- File servers (SMB)
- BITS servers
- Web servers
A: FTP servers
Feedback: BranchCache supports file requests using Server Message Blocks (SMB), the standard Windows file sharing protocol; Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP), the standard protocol for web communications; and the Background Intelligent Transfer Service (BITS).

Q: Which of the following benefits is not provided when BranchCache is used?
- You can use metadata to reduce the amount of data traversing the WAN link.
- All data stored in the cache is encrypted.
- Users always have access to the current version of the data.
- Users access data over the faster WAN link.
A: Users access data over the faster WAN link.
Feedback: BranchCache is a feature that can store a copy of the file on a computer (or computers) at the branch office site, so that the server only has to transmit the files over the WAN connection once. All subsequent requests access the file from the cache on the local network.

Q: Where in the Control Panel can you find quick access to settings most commonly adjusted by mobile computer users?
- Hardware and Sound
- Windows Mobility Center
- Mobile Computer Settings
- Device Manager
A: Windows Mobility Center
Feedback: Windows Mobility Center provides users with quick access to the configuration settings most commonly adjusted by mobile computer users. Windows Mobility Center is a shell application. It performs no special functions of its own; it simply provides a central point of access for many of the configuration settings that mobile computer users need frequently. These settings are located in various Control Panel applets, but placing them in a single window enables users to make adjustments quickly and easily. This is particularly beneficial to business users that give presentations with their portable computers.

Q: By default, eight tiles appear in the Windows Mobility Center. Which of the listed items does not appear by default here?
- Sync Center
- External Display
- Brightness
- User Accounts
A: User Accounts
Feedback: The eight tiles that can appear in the Windows Mobility Center are as follows: - Brightness - Volume - Battery Status - Wireless Network - Screen Orientation - External Display - Sync Center - Presentation Settings

Q: What options do you have for implementing BitLocker Drive Encryption? (Choose all that apply.)
- Encrypt documents only
- Encrypt startup files only
- Encrypt entire drive
- Encrypt used disk space only
A: Encrypt entire drive; Encrypt used disk space only
Feedback: When encrypting a fixed disk, storage pool, or removable media, there are two options: - Encrypt used disk space only: This option encrypts only the part of the drive that currently has data stored on it. - Encrypt entire drive: This option encrypts the full volume and offers more security because it will encrypt areas that contain data that has been deleted but may still be retrievable from the drive.

Q: When you encrypt the drive where the Windows operating system is installed, BitLocker must store the keys it uses to encrypt/decrypt on a separate piece of hardware. Where can the keys be stored? (Choose all that apply.)
- Local file system
- TPM v1.2 or later chip
- USB flash drive
- Network share
A: TPM v1.2 or later chip; USB flash drive
Feedback: When you encrypt the drive where the Windows operating system is installed, BitLocker must store the keys it uses to encrypt/decrypt on a separate piece of hardware. The keys can be stored on a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) version 1.2 (or later) microchip or on a removable USB flash drive.

Q: When is Patch Tuesday?
- The second Tuesday of every month
- The third Tuesday of every month
- The first Tuesday of every quarter
- The second Tuesday of every quarter
A: The second Tuesday of every month
Feedback: The second Tuesday of every month, sometimes known as Patch Tuesday, is typically the release day for all tested and signed patches from Microsoft.

Q: By default, when will Windows install software updates?
- Daily at 1:00 AM
- Daily at 3:00 AM
- Sundays at 3:00 AM
- Saturdays at 1:00 AM
A: Daily at 3:00 AM
Feedback: If no schedule is selected, updates will automatically be installed every day at 3:00 AM.

Q: What was the first 32-bit version of Windows to support the GPT partitioning style?
- Windows 2000
- Windows XP
- Windows Vista
- Windows 7
A: Windows Vista
Feedback: GUID (globally unique identifier) partition table (GPT) has been around for a while, but no x86 version of Windows prior to Vista supports it. (Windows XP Professional x64 Edition does support GPT.)

Q: What requirement must a computer meet in order to support booting from a GPT partitioned disk?
- Hyper threading for CPUs
- Extensible Firmware Interface (EFI)-based boot partition
- Virtual memory management
- A TPM chip
A: Extensible Firmware Interface (EFI)-based boot partition
Feedback: Unless the computers architecture provides support for an Extensible Firmware Interface (EFI)-based boot partition, it is not possible to boot from GPT disks. In this case, the operating system must reside on an MBR disk and GPT must reside on an entirely separate, non-bootable disk, used for data storage only.

Q: Which three logs in Windows have been consistently maintained as the basic logs available?
- System
- Setup
- Security
- Application
A: System; Setup; Security
Feedback: Windows has maintained the same three basic logs throughout several versions: a System log, a Security log, and an Application log. Recent versions have added a Setup log, and servers performing certain roles have additional logs, such as those tracking DNS and File Replication activities.

Q: You can associate several actions to occur upon a specific event occurring. Which of the listed actions is not one of the available options?
- Start a program
- Send an SNMP trap
- Send an email message
- Display a message
A: Send an SNMP trap
Feedback: You can then associate one of three Actions with an event: Start a Program, Send an e-mail, or Display a Message.

Q: What organization is responsible for the testing and verification of compatibility, reliability, and functionality of drivers for hardware devices?
- Windows Driver Verifier
- Windows Hardware Quality Labs
- Microsoft Hardware Quality Labs
- Microsoft Driver Validator
A: Windows Hardware Quality Labs
Feedback: Tests conducted by the Windows Hardware Quality Labs (WHQL) are designed to ensure that your system maintains stability when device drivers are installed. Testing and verification is performed for compatibility, reliability, and functionality with Windows 8.1.

Q: You can use Group Policy to configure how Windows responds when a user tries to install device drivers that are not digitally signed. Which of the following options is not available for this configuration?
- Ignore
- Warn
- Sign
- Block
A: Sign
Feedback: There is no sign option available to configure. You can choose from ignore, warn, or block.

Q: What is the primary method of file recovery for a Windows 8.1 computer?
- ntdsutil.exe
- File History
- Time Machine
- Windows Backup
A: File History
Feedback: The primary method of file recovery for use on a Windows 8.1 client machine is the Windows 8.1 File History feature. The alternative, Windows 7 File Recovery feature, is provided as the replacement for Windows Backup.

Q: If File History is enabled, what will be the status of Windows 7 File Recovery on the computer?
- Disabled
- Fully enabled
- Enabled, but only for restorations
- Enabled, but only for backups
A: Disabled
Feedback: If File History is switched on, then Windows 7 File Recovery cannot be used until it is switched off.