Title: Exam 6 - Safe Patient Handling
Course: NUR 1008C Transition to Prof Nursing > Section: Module 7

Q: The coordinated efforts of the musculoskeletal and nervous system maintain balance, posture, and body alignment. Body alignment refers to
- A low center of gravity balanced over a wide base of support.
- The result of weight, center of gravity, and balance.
- The relationship of one body part to another.
- The force that occurs in a direction to oppose movement.
A: The relationship of one body part to another.
If right: Body alignment refers to the relationship of one body part to another body part along a horizontal or vertical line. Body balance occurs when a relatively low center of gravity is balanced over a wide, stable base of support. Coordinated body movement is a result of weight, center of gravity, and balance. Friction is a force that occurs in a direction to oppose movement.
If wrong: Body alignment refers to the relationship of one body part to another body part along a horizontal or vertical line. Body balance occurs when a relatively low center of gravity is balanced over a wide, stable base of support. Coordinated body movement is a result of weight, center of gravity, and balance. Friction is a force that occurs in a direction to oppose movement.

Q: Approximately what percentage of all back pain is associated with manual lifting tasks?
- 10%
- 25%
- 50%
- 75%
A: 50%
If right: Half of all back pain is associated with manual lifting tasks.
If wrong: Half of all back pain is associated with manual lifting tasks.

Q: The nurse is providing care to a patient who is bedridden. To prevent fatigue, the nurse raises the height of the bed. The nurse understands that balance is maintained by raising the bed to
- Prevent a shift in the nurse’s base of support.
- Narrow the base of support.
- Allow the nurse to bring his or her feet close together.
- Shift the center of gravity further away from the base of support.
A: Prevent a shift in the nurse’s base of support.
If right: Raising the height of the bed when performing a procedure prevents bending too far at the waist and causing a shift in the base of support. Balance is maintained by maintaining proper body alignment and posture through two simple techniques. First, widen the base of support by separating the feet to a comfortable distance. Second, increase balance by bringing the center of gravity closer to the base of support.
If wrong: Raising the height of the bed when performing a procedure prevents bending too far at the waist and causing a shift in the base of support. Balance is maintained by maintaining proper body alignment and posture through two simple techniques. First, widen the base of support by separating the feet to a comfortable distance. Second, increase balance by bringing the center of gravity closer to the base of support.

Q: Unlike arthritis, joint degeneration
- Occurs only from noninflammatory disease.
- Occurs only from inflammatory disease.
- Involves overgrowth of bone at the articular ends.
- Affects mostly non–weight-bearing joints
A: Involves overgrowth of bone at the articular ends.
If right: Joint degeneration, which can occur with inflammatory and noninflammatory disease, is marked by changes in articular cartilage combined with overgrowth of bone at the articular ends. Degenerative changes commonly affect weight-bearing joints.
If wrong: Joint degeneration, which can occur with inflammatory and noninflammatory disease, is marked by changes in articular cartilage combined with overgrowth of bone at the articular ends. Degenerative changes commonly affect weight-bearing joints.

Q: A structural curvature of the spine associated with vertebral rotation is known as
- Scoliosis.
- Osteogenesis.
- Osteomalacia.
- Arthritis.
A: Scoliosis.
If right: Scoliosis is a structural curvature of the spine associated with vertebral rotation. Osteogenesis imperfecta is an inherited disorder that makes bones porous, short, bowed, and deformed. Osteomalacia is an uncommon metabolic disease characterized by inadequate and delayed mineralization, resulting in compact and spongy bone. Arthritis is an inflammatory joint disease characterized by inflammation or destruction of the synovial membrane and articular cartilage, and by systemic signs of inflammation.
If wrong: Scoliosis is a structural curvature of the spine associated with vertebral rotation. Osteogenesis imperfecta is an inherited disorder that makes bones porous, short, bowed, and deformed. Osteomalacia is an uncommon metabolic disease characterized by inadequate and delayed mineralization, resulting in compact and spongy bone. Arthritis is an inflammatory joint disease characterized by inflammation or destruction of the synovial membrane and articular cartilage, and by systemic signs of inflammation.

Q: Isotonic, isometric, and resistive isometric are three categories of exercise. They are classified according to the type of muscle contraction involved. Of the following exercises, which are considered isotonic?
- Bicycling, swimming, walking, jogging, dancing
- Tightening or tensing of muscles without moving body parts
- Push-ups, hip lifting, pushing feet against a footboard on the bed
- Quadriceps set exercises and contraction of the gluteal muscles
A: Bicycling, swimming, walking, jogging, dancing
If right: Examples of isotonic exercises are walking, swimming, dance aerobics, jogging, bicycling, and moving arms and legs with light resistance. Isometric exercises involve tightening or tensing of muscles without moving body parts. Examples include quadriceps set exercises and contraction of the gluteal muscles. Examples of resistive isometric exercises are push-ups and hip lifting, as well as placing a footboard on the foot of the bed for patients to push against with their feet.
If wrong: Examples of isotonic exercises are walking, swimming, dance aerobics, jogging, bicycling, and moving arms and legs with light resistance. Isometric exercises involve tightening or tensing of muscles without moving body parts. Examples include quadriceps set exercises and contraction of the gluteal muscles. Examples of resistive isometric exercises are push-ups and hip lifting, as well as placing a footboard on the foot of the bed for patients to push against with their feet.

Q: A nurse caring for a patient with COPD knows that which oxygen delivery device is most appropriate?
- Nasal cannula
- Simple face mask
- Partial non-rebreather mask
- Non-rebreather mask
A: Nasal cannula
If right: Nasal cannulas deliver oxygen from 1 to 6 L/min. A patient with COPD should never receive more than 3 L/min because this decreases the drive to breathe, resulting in hypoventilation. All other devices are intended for flow rates greater than 6 L/min.
If wrong: Nasal cannulas deliver oxygen from 1 to 6 L/min. A patient with COPD should never receive more than 3 L/min because this decreases the drive to breathe, resulting in hypoventilation. All other devices are intended for flow rates greater than 6 L/min.

Q: Upon auscultation, the nurse hears a whooshing sound at the fifth intercostal space. The nurse recognizes that this sound is
- The beginning of the systolic phase.
- The opening of the aortic valve.
- S_3, the third heart sound.
- Regurgitation of the mitral valve.
A: Regurgitation of the mitral valve.
If right: A whooshing sound at the fifth intercostal space is a murmur; a prolapsed valve allows regurgitation that is heard as a whooshing sound. The systolic phase begins with ventricular filling and closing of the aortic valve, which is heard as the first heart sound, S_1. The third heart sound, S_3, is heard with heart failure.
If wrong: A whooshing sound at the fifth intercostal space is a murmur; a prolapsed valve allows regurgitation that is heard as a whooshing sound. The systolic phase begins with ventricular filling and closing of the aortic valve, which is heard as the first heart sound, S_1. The third heart sound, S_3, is heard with heart failure.

Q: A nurse is caring for a patient who has poor tissue perfusion as the result of hypertension. When the patient asks what he should eat for breakfast, what should the nurse recommend?
- A bowl of cereal with whole milk and a banana
- A cup of nonfat yogurt with granola, and a handful of dried apricots
- Whole wheat toast with butter, a side of cottage cheese
- Omelet with sausage, cheese, and onions
A: A cup of nonfat yogurt with granola, and a handful of dried apricots
If right: Diets high in potassium, fiber, and calcium and low in fat are best for someone who is managing hypertension. Nonfat yogurt with granola is a good source of calcium, fiber, and potassium; dried apricots add a second source of potassium. Although cereal and a banana provide fiber and potassium, skim milk should be substituted for whole milk to decrease fat. An omelet with sausage and cheese is high in fat. Butter is high in fat.
If wrong: Diets high in potassium, fiber, and calcium and low in fat are best for someone who is managing hypertension. Nonfat yogurt with granola is a good source of calcium, fiber, and potassium; dried apricots add a second source of potassium. Although cereal and a banana provide fiber and potassium, skim milk should be substituted for whole milk to decrease fat. An omelet with sausage and cheese is high in fat. Butter is high in fat.

Q: A nurse is caring for a patient who suffered a myocardial infarction to the left coronary artery. Upon assessment, the nurse expects to find
- Blood in the sputum.
- Distended jugular vein.
- Peripheral edema.
- Crackles in the lungs.
A: Crackles in the lungs.
If right: The left coronary artery supplies the left ventricle of the heart; damage to the muscle in the left ventricle leads to pulmonary congestion and frothy sputum, and crackles may be heard. A distended jugular vein and peripheral edema are associated with damage to the right side of the heart. Blood in the sputum is indicative of an infection such as tuberculosis.
If wrong: The left coronary artery supplies the left ventricle of the heart; damage to the muscle in the left ventricle leads to pulmonary congestion and frothy sputum, and crackles may be heard. A distended jugular vein and peripheral edema are associated with damage to the right side of the heart. Blood in the sputum is indicative of an infection such as tuberculosis.

Q: A nurse is caring for a patient with COPD who is in recovery for a myocardial infarction. Which of the following nursing actions is the priority?
- Place the patient on continuous cardiac monitoring.
- Put the patient on 6 L/min of oxygen via nasal cannula.
- Deep suction the patient every 2 hours.
- Assess bilateral lung sounds every hour.
A: Place the patient on continuous cardiac monitoring.
If right: A patient who has a recent myocardial infarction can convert back to a deadly rhythm and needs to be placed on continuous cardiac monitoring. The patient has COPD and should not be placed on oxygen over 4 L/min. Proper cardiac functioning will allow oxygenated blood to be distributed to tissues. Patients with recent myocardial infarction should not be suctioned. This patient does not have any indicators to warrant hourly assessment of lung fields.
If wrong: A patient who has a recent myocardial infarction can convert back to a deadly rhythm and needs to be placed on continuous cardiac monitoring. The patient has COPD and should not be placed on oxygen over 4 L/min. Proper cardiac functioning will allow oxygenated blood to be distributed to tissues. Patients with recent myocardial infarction should not be suctioned. This patient does not have any indicators to warrant hourly assessment of lung fields.

Q: The nurse would expect which change in cardiac output for a patient with fluid volume overload?
- Increased preload
- Decreased afterload
- Decreased tissue perfusion
- Increased heart rate
A: Increased preload
If right: Preload refers to the stretch of the ventricle related to the volume of blood; an increase in circulating volume would increase the preload of the heart. Afterload refers to resistance; increased pressure would lead to increased resistance, and afterload would increase. A decrease in tissue perfusion would be seen with hypovolemia. A decrease in fluid volume would cause an increase in heart rate as the body is attempting to increase cardiac output.
If wrong: Preload refers to the stretch of the ventricle related to the volume of blood; an increase in circulating volume would increase the preload of the heart. Afterload refers to resistance; increased pressure would lead to increased resistance, and afterload would increase. A decrease in tissue perfusion would be seen with hypovolemia. A decrease in fluid volume would cause an increase in heart rate as the body is attempting to increase cardiac output.

Q: The nurse is caring for a patient who has been diagnosed with a stroke. As part of her ongoing care, the nurse should
- Encourage the patient to perform as many self-care activities as possible.
- Provide a complete bed bath to promote patient comfort.
- Place the patient on bed rest to prevent fatigue.
- Understand that the patient will not eat owing to a decreased energy need.
A: Encourage the patient to perform as many self-care activities as possible.
If right: Nurses should encourage the patient to perform as many self-care activities as possible, thereby maintaining the highest level of mobility. Sometimes nurses inadvertently contribute to a patient’s immobility by providing unnecessary help with activities such as bathing and transferring. Placing the patient on bed rest without sufficient ambulation leads to loss of mobility and functional decline, resulting in weakness, fatigue, and increased risk for falls. Anorexia and insufficient assistance with eating lead to malnutrition.
If wrong: Nurses should encourage the patient to perform as many self-care activities as possible, thereby maintaining the highest level of mobility. Sometimes nurses inadvertently contribute to a patient’s immobility by providing unnecessary help with activities such as bathing and transferring. Placing the patient on bed rest without sufficient ambulation leads to loss of mobility and functional decline, resulting in weakness, fatigue, and increased risk for falls. Anorexia and insufficient assistance with eating lead to malnutrition.

Q: Immobility is a major risk factor for pressure ulcers. In caring for the patient who is immobilized, the nurse needs to be aware that
- Breaks in skin integrity are easy to heal.
- Preventing a pressure ulcer is more expensive than treating one.
- Immobilized patients can develop skin breakdown within 3 hours.
- Pressure ulcers are caused by a sudden influx of oxygen to the tissue.
A: Immobilized patients can develop skin breakdown within 3 hours.
If right: Immobility is a major risk factor for pressure ulcers. Any break in the integrity of the skin is difficult to heal. Preventing a pressure ulcer is much less expensive than treating one; therefore, preventive nursing interventions are imperative. An older adult who is immobilized can develop skin breakdown within 3 hours. Tissue metabolism depends on the supply of oxygen and nutrients to and the elimination of metabolic wastes from the blood. Pressure affects cellular metabolism by decreasing or totally eliminating tissue circulation.
If wrong: Immobility is a major risk factor for pressure ulcers. Any break in the integrity of the skin is difficult to heal. Preventing a pressure ulcer is much less expensive than treating one; therefore, preventive nursing interventions are imperative. An older adult who is immobilized can develop skin breakdown within 3 hours. Tissue metabolism depends on the supply of oxygen and nutrients to and the elimination of metabolic wastes from the blood. Pressure affects cellular metabolism by decreasing or totally eliminating tissue circulation.

Q: In caring for a patient who is immobile, it is important for the nurse to understand that
- The effects of immobility are the same for everyone.
- Immobility helps maintain sleep-wake patterns.
- Changes in role and self-concept may lead to depression.
- Immobile patients are often eager to help in their own care.
A: Changes in role and self-concept may lead to depression.
If right: The immobilized patient often becomes depressed because of changes in role and self-concept. Every patient responds to immobility differently. Immobility or bed rest frequently affects coping and creates sleep-wake alterations because of changes in routine or in the environment. Because immobilization removes the patient from a daily routine, he or she has more time to worry about disability. Worrying quickly increases the patient’s depression, causing withdrawal. Withdrawn patients often do not want to participate in their own care.
If wrong: The immobilized patient often becomes depressed because of changes in role and self-concept. Every patient responds to immobility differently. Immobility or bed rest frequently affects coping and creates sleep-wake alterations because of changes in routine or in the environment. Because immobilization removes the patient from a daily routine, he or she has more time to worry about disability. Worrying quickly increases the patient’s depression, causing withdrawal. Withdrawn patients often do not want to participate in their own care.

Q: Patients on bed rest or otherwise immobile are at risk for
- Increased metabolic rate.
- Increased diarrhea (peristalsis).
- Altered metabolic function.
- Increased appetite.
A: Altered metabolic function.
If right: Immobility disrupts normal metabolic functioning: decreasing the metabolic rate, altering the metabolism of carbohydrates, fats, and proteins (nutritional function); causing fluid, electrolyte, and calcium imbalances; and causing gastrointestinal disturbances such as decreased appetite and slowing of peristalsis.
If wrong: Immobility disrupts normal metabolic functioning: decreasing the metabolic rate, altering the metabolism of carbohydrates, fats, and proteins (nutritional function); causing fluid, electrolyte, and calcium imbalances; and causing gastrointestinal disturbances such as decreased appetite and slowing of peristalsis.

Q: Immobilized patients frequently have hypercalcemia, placing them at risk for
- Osteoporosis.
- Renal calculi.
- Pressure ulcers.
- Thrombus formation.
A: Renal calculi.
If right: Renal calculi are calcium stones that lodge in the renal pelvis or pass through the ureters. Immobilized patients are at risk for calculi because they frequently have hypercalcemia. Osteoporosis is caused by accelerated bone loss. A pressure ulcer is an impairment of the skin that results from prolonged ischemia (decreased blood supply) within tissues. A thrombus is an accumulation of platelets, fibrin, clotting factors, and cellular elements of the blood attached to the interior wall of a vein or artery, which sometimes occludes the lumen of the vessel.
If wrong: Renal calculi are calcium stones that lodge in the renal pelvis or pass through the ureters. Immobilized patients are at risk for calculi because they frequently have hypercalcemia. Osteoporosis is caused by accelerated bone loss. A pressure ulcer is an impairment of the skin that results from prolonged ischemia (decreased blood supply) within tissues. A thrombus is an accumulation of platelets, fibrin, clotting factors, and cellular elements of the blood attached to the interior wall of a vein or artery, which sometimes occludes the lumen of the vessel.

Q: Without balance control, the center of gravity is displaced, thus creating risk for falls and subsequent injuries. Balance is enhanced by
- Maintaining a narrow base of support.
- Creating a high center of gravity.
- Disregarding body posture.
- Keeping a low center of gravity.
A: Keeping a low center of gravity.
If right: Without balance control, the center of gravity is displaced, thus creating risk for falls and subsequent injuries. Balance is enhanced by keeping the center of gravity of the body low with a wide base of support and by maintaining correct body posture.
If wrong: Without balance control, the center of gravity is displaced, thus creating risk for falls and subsequent injuries. Balance is enhanced by keeping the center of gravity of the body low with a wide base of support and by maintaining correct body posture.

Q: The nurse is caring for a patient with a stage IV pressure ulcer. The nurse assigns which of the following nursing diagnoses?
- Readiness for enhanced nutrition
- Impaired physical mobility
- Impaired skin integrity
- Chronic pain
A: Impaired skin integrity
If right: After the assessment is completed and the information that the patient has a stage IV pressure ulcer is gathered, a diagnosis of Impaired skin integrity is selected. Readiness for enhanced nutrition would be selected for an individual with an adequate diet that could be improved. Impaired physical mobility and Chronic pain, as well as the nutrition nursing diagnosis, could well be the nursing diagnoses selected for this patient, but current data in the question strongly support Impaired skin integrity.
If wrong: After the assessment is completed and the information that the patient has a stage IV pressure ulcer is gathered, a diagnosis of Impaired skin integrity is selected. Readiness for enhanced nutrition would be selected for an individual with an adequate diet that could be improved. Impaired physical mobility and Chronic pain, as well as the nutrition nursing diagnosis, could well be the nursing diagnoses selected for this patient, but current data in the question strongly support Impaired skin integrity.

Q: The nurse has collected the following assessment data: right heel with reddened area that does not blanch. What nursing diagnosis would the nurse assign?
- Ineffective tissue perfusion
- Risk for infection
- Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements
- Acute pain
A: Ineffective tissue perfusion
If right: The area on the heel has experienced a decreased supply of blood and oxygen (tissue perfusion), which has resulted in tissue damage. The most appropriate nursing diagnosis with this information is Ineffective tissue perfusion. Risk for infection, Acute pain, and Imbalanced nutrition may be part of this patient’s nursing diagnosis, but the data provided do not support this nursing diagnosis.
If wrong: The area on the heel has experienced a decreased supply of blood and oxygen (tissue perfusion), which has resulted in tissue damage. The most appropriate nursing diagnosis with this information is Ineffective tissue perfusion. Risk for infection, Acute pain, and Imbalanced nutrition may be part of this patient’s nursing diagnosis, but the data provided do not support this nursing diagnosis.

Q: The nurse is completing a skin risk assessment utilizing the Braden scale. The patient has some sensory impairment and skin that is rarely moist, walks occasionally, and has slightly limited mobility, along with excellent intake of meals and no apparent problem with friction and shear. What would be the patient’s Braden scale total score?
- 15
- 17
- 20
- 23
A: 20
If right: With use of the Braden scale, the patient receives 3 for slight sensory impairment, 4 for skin being rarely moist, 3 for walks occasionally, 3 for slightly limited mobility, 4 for intake of meals, and 4 for no problem with friction and shear. The total score is 20.
If wrong: With use of the Braden scale, the patient receives 3 for slight sensory impairment, 4 for skin being rarely moist, 3 for walks occasionally, 3 for slightly limited mobility, 4 for intake of meals, and 4 for no problem with friction and shear. The total score is 20.

Q: The nurse is caring for a medical-surgical patient. To decrease the risk of pressure ulcers and encourage the patient’s willingness and ability to increase mobility, which intervention is most important for the nurse to complete?
- Encourage the patient to sit up in the chair.
- Provide analgesic medication as ordered.
- Explain the risks of immobility to the patient.
- Turn the patient every 3 hours while in bed.
A: Provide analgesic medication as ordered.
If right: Maintaining adequate pain control and patient comfort increases the patient’s willingness and ability to increase mobility, which in turn reduces pressure ulcer risks. It is good to encourage a patient to move about but even better if the patient actually sits up in the chair. Explaining the risk of immobility is important for the patient because it may impact the patient’s willingness but not his or her ability. Turning the patient is important for decreasing pressure ulcers but needs to be done every 2 hours, and again does not influence the patient’s ability to increase mobility.
If wrong: Maintaining adequate pain control and patient comfort increases the patient’s willingness and ability to increase mobility, which in turn reduces pressure ulcer risks. It is good to encourage a patient to move about but even better if the patient actually sits up in the chair. Explaining the risk of immobility is important for the patient because it may impact the patient’s willingness but not his or her ability. Turning the patient is important for decreasing pressure ulcers but needs to be done every 2 hours, and again does not influence the patient’s ability to increase mobility.

Q: The nurse is caring for a patient with a stage II pressure ulcer and has assigned a nursing diagnosis of Risk for infection. The patient is unconscious and bedridden. The nurse is completing the plan of care and is writing goals for the patient. What is the best goal for this patient?
- The patient’s family will demonstrate specific care of the wound site.
- The patient will state what to look for with regard to an infection.
- The patient will remain free of an increase in temperature and of odorous or purulent drainage from the wound.
- The patient’s family members will wash their hands when visiting the patient.
A: The patient will remain free of an increase in temperature and of odorous or purulent drainage from the wound.
If right: Because the patient has an open wound and the skin is no longer intact to protect the tissue, the patient is at increased risk for infection. The nurse will be assessing the patient for signs and symptoms of infection, including an increase in temperature, an increase in white count, and odorous and purulent drainage from the wound. The patient is unconscious and is unable to communicate the signs and symptoms of infection; also, this is an intervention, not a goal for this diagnosis. It is important for the patient’s family to be able to demonstrate how to care for the wound and wash their hands, but these statements are interventions, not goals or outcomes for this nursing diagnosis.
If wrong: Because the patient has an open wound and the skin is no longer intact to protect the tissue, the patient is at increased risk for infection. The nurse will be assessing the patient for signs and symptoms of infection, including an increase in temperature, an increase in white count, and odorous and purulent drainage from the wound. The patient is unconscious and is unable to communicate the signs and symptoms of infection; also, this is an intervention, not a goal for this diagnosis. It is important for the patient’s family to be able to demonstrate how to care for the wound and wash their hands, but these statements are interventions, not goals or outcomes for this nursing diagnosis.

Q: The nurse is caring for a postpartum patient. The patient has an episiotomy after experiencing birth. The physician has ordered heat to treat this condition, and the nurse is providing this treatment. This patient is at risk for
- Infection.
- Impaired skin integrity.
- Trauma.
- Imbalanced nutrition.
A: Trauma.
If right: Heat causes vasodilatation and is used to improve blood flow to an injured body part. The application of heat incorrectly when the treatment is too hot, or is applied too long or to the wrong place, can result in a burn for the patient and risk for additional trauma. The skin already has impaired integrity owing to the surgical procedure, and because of this has been at risk for infection since the surgical procedure was performed. This patient is of childbearing age and has had a child. Additional needs for nutrition are present during pregnancy and breastfeeding, but this is an established nursing diagnosis. Data are insufficient to support the nursing diagnosis of Imbalanced nutrition.
If wrong: Heat causes vasodilatation and is used to improve blood flow to an injured body part. The application of heat incorrectly when the treatment is too hot, or is applied too long or to the wrong place, can result in a burn for the patient and risk for additional trauma. The skin already has impaired integrity owing to the surgical procedure, and because of this has been at risk for infection since the surgical procedure was performed. This patient is of childbearing age and has had a child. Additional needs for nutrition are present during pregnancy and breastfeeding, but this is an established nursing diagnosis. Data are insufficient to support the nursing diagnosis of Imbalanced nutrition.

Q: The nurse is caring for a patient with a stage III pressure ulcer. The nurse has assigned a nursing diagnosis of Risk for infection. Which intervention would be most important for this patient?
- Teach the family how to manage the odor associated with the wound.
- Discuss with the family how to prepare for care of the patient in the home.
- Encourage thorough handwashing of all individuals caring for the patient.
- Encourage increased quantities of carbohydrates and fats.
A: Encourage thorough handwashing of all individuals caring for the patient.
If right: The number one way to decrease the risk of infection by breaking the chain of infection is to wash hands. Encouraging fluid and food intake helps with overall wellness and wound healing, especially protein, but an increase in carbohydrates and fats does not relate to the risk of infection. If the patient will be discharged before the wound is healed, the family will certainly need education on how to care for the patient. Teaching the family how to manage the odor associated with a wound is certainly important, but these interventions do not directly relate to the risk of infection and breaking the chain of the infectious process.
If wrong: The number one way to decrease the risk of infection by breaking the chain of infection is to wash hands. Encouraging fluid and food intake helps with overall wellness and wound healing, especially protein, but an increase in carbohydrates and fats does not relate to the risk of infection. If the patient will be discharged before the wound is healed, the family will certainly need education on how to care for the patient. Teaching the family how to manage the odor associated with a wound is certainly important, but these interventions do not directly relate to the risk of infection and breaking the chain of the infectious process.