Title: Exam 5 - Human Needs
Course: NUR 1008C Transition to Prof Nursing > Section: Module 6

Q: To create a new nutritional plan of care for a patient, the nurse needs to do which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
- Utilize the characteristics of a normal nutritional status.
- Evaluate previous patient responses to nursing interventions.
- Exclude established expected outcomes to evaluate patient responses.
- Design innovative interventions to meet the patient’s needs.
- Follow through with evaluation and counseling.
A: Utilize the characteristics of a normal nutritional status.; Exclude established expected outcomes to evaluate patient responses.; Design innovative interventions to meet the patient’s needs.
If right: To create a new nutritional plan of care, the nurse must utilize characteristics of a normal nutritional status to gauge effectiveness of the plan. The nurse must be aware of previous patient responses to nursing interventions for altered nutrition to determine the probability of success. The nurse must use established expected outcomes to evaluate the patient’s response to care (e.g., patient’s weight increases by 0.5 kg/week). The nurse must also be creative when designing innovative nursing interventions to meet the patient’s nutritional needs and must demonstrate responsibility by following through with evaluation and counseling to successfully reach goals.
If wrong: To create a new nutritional plan of care, the nurse must utilize characteristics of a normal nutritional status to gauge effectiveness of the plan. The nurse must be aware of previous patient responses to nursing interventions for altered nutrition to determine the probability of success. The nurse must use established expected outcomes to evaluate the patient’s response to care (e.g., patient’s weight increases by 0.5 kg/week). The nurse must also be creative when designing innovative nursing interventions to meet the patient’s nutritional needs and must demonstrate responsibility by following through with evaluation and counseling to successfully reach goals.

Q: When teaching a patient about current dietary guidelines for the general population, the nurse explains referenced daily intakes (RDIs) and daily reference values (DRVs), otherwise known as daily values. In providing this information, the nurse understands that daily values
- Have replaced recommended daily allowances (RDAs).
- Have provided a more understandable format of RDAs for the public.
- Are based on percentages of a diet consisting of 1200 kcal/day.
- Are not usually easy to find computer experience is required.
A: Have provided a more understandable format of RDAs for the public.
If right: Daily values did not replace RDAs but provided a separate, more understandable format for the public. Daily values are based on percentages of a diet consisting of 2000 kcal/day; these values constitute the daily values used on food labels, which are easy for anyone to find. Computer experience is not required.
If wrong: Daily values did not replace RDAs but provided a separate, more understandable format for the public. Daily values are based on percentages of a diet consisting of 2000 kcal/day; these values constitute the daily values used on food labels, which are easy for anyone to find. Computer experience is not required.

Q: When developing a plan of care for a patient with altered nutritional needs, the nurse must assess the patient for which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
- What is the condition now?
- Is the condition stable?
- Will the condition get worse?
- Will the disease process accelerate deterioration?
- Which single objective measure will predict the course of action?
A: What is the condition now?; Is the condition stable?; Will the condition get worse?
If right: Nutritional screening tools must gather data based on four main principles: What is the condition now? Is the condition stable? Will the condition get worse? And will the disease process accelerate nutritional deterioration? Using a single objective measure is ineffective in predicting risk of nutritional problems.
If wrong: Nutritional screening tools must gather data based on four main principles: What is the condition now? Is the condition stable? Will the condition get worse? And will the disease process accelerate nutritional deterioration? Using a single objective measure is ineffective in predicting risk of nutritional problems.

Q: The nurse is teaching the patient about dietary guidelines. In discussing the four components of dietary reference intakes (DRIs), it is important to understand that
- The estimated average requirement (EAR) is appropriate for 100% of the population.
- The recommended dietary allowance (RDA) meets the needs of the individual.
- Adequate intake (AI) determines the nutrient requirements of the RDA.
- The tolerable upper intake level (UL) is not a recommended level of intake.
A: The tolerable upper intake level (UL) is not a recommended level of intake.
If right: The tolerable upper intake level (UL) is the highest level that likely poses no risk of adverse health events. It is not a recommended level of intake. The EAR is the recommended amount of a nutrient that appears sufficient to maintain a specific body function for 50% of the population based on age and gender. The RDA reflects the average needs of 98% of the population, not the exact needs of the individual. AI is the suggested intake for individuals based on observed or experimentally determined estimates of nutrient intakes and is used when evidence is insufficient for setting of the RDA.
If wrong: The tolerable upper intake level (UL) is the highest level that likely poses no risk of adverse health events. It is not a recommended level of intake. The EAR is the recommended amount of a nutrient that appears sufficient to maintain a specific body function for 50% of the population based on age and gender. The RDA reflects the average needs of 98% of the population, not the exact needs of the individual. AI is the suggested intake for individuals based on observed or experimentally determined estimates of nutrient intakes and is used when evidence is insufficient for setting of the RDA.

Q: In teaching mothers-to-be about infant nutrition, the nurse instructs patients to
- Give cow’s milk during the first year of life.
- Supplement breast milk with corn syrup.
- Add honey to infant formulas for increased energy.
- Remember that breast milk or formula is sufficient for the first 4 to 6 months.
A: Remember that breast milk or formula is sufficient for the first 4 to 6 months.
If right: Breast milk or formula provides sufficient nutrition for the first 4 to 6 months of life. Infants should not have regular cow’s milk during the first year of life. Cow’s milk causes gastrointestinal bleeding, is too concentrated for the infant’s kidneys to manage, increases the risk of milk product allergies, and is a poor source of iron and vitamins C and E. Honey and corn syrup are potential sources of botulism toxin and should not be used in the infant diet.
If wrong: Breast milk or formula provides sufficient nutrition for the first 4 to 6 months of life. Infants should not have regular cow’s milk during the first year of life. Cow’s milk causes gastrointestinal bleeding, is too concentrated for the infant’s kidneys to manage, increases the risk of milk product allergies, and is a poor source of iron and vitamins C and E. Honey and corn syrup are potential sources of botulism toxin and should not be used in the infant diet.

Q: To counter obesity in adolescents, increasing physical activity is often more important than curbing intake. Sports and regular, moderate to intense exercise necessitate dietary modifications to meet increased energy needs for adolescents. The nurse understands that these modifications include
- Decreasing carbohydrates to 25% to 30% of total intake.
- Decreasing protein intake to .75 g/kg/day.
- Ingesting water before and after exercise.
- Providing vitamin and mineral supplements.
A: Ingesting water before and after exercise.
If right: Adequate hydration is very important for all athletes. They need to ingest water before and after exercise to prevent dehydration, especially in hot, humid environments. Carbohydrates, both simple and complex, are the main source of energy, providing 55% to 60% of total daily kilocalories. Protein needs increase to 1.0 to 1.5 g/kg/day. Vitamin and mineral supplements are not required, but intake of iron-rich foods is required to prevent anemia.
If wrong: Adequate hydration is very important for all athletes. They need to ingest water before and after exercise to prevent dehydration, especially in hot, humid environments. Carbohydrates, both simple and complex, are the main source of energy, providing 55% to 60% of total daily kilocalories. Protein needs increase to 1.0 to 1.5 g/kg/day. Vitamin and mineral supplements are not required, but intake of iron-rich foods is required to prevent anemia.

Q: In providing prenatal care to a patient, the nurse teaches the expectant mother that
- Protein intake needs to decrease to preserve kidney function.
- Calcium intake is especially important in the first trimester.
- Folic acid is needed to help prevent birth defects and anemia.
- The mother should take in as many extra vitamins and minerals as possible.
A: Folic acid is needed to help prevent birth defects and anemia.
If right: Folic acid intake is particularly important for DNA synthesis and growth of red blood cells. Inadequate intake may lead to fetal neural tube defects, anencephaly, or maternal megaloblastic anemia. Protein intake throughout pregnancy needs to increase to 60 g daily. Calcium intake is especially critical in the third trimester, when fetal bones are mineralized. Prenatal care usually includes vitamin and mineral supplementation to ensure daily intakes; however, pregnant women should not take additional supplements beyond prescribed amounts.
If wrong: Folic acid intake is particularly important for DNA synthesis and growth of red blood cells. Inadequate intake may lead to fetal neural tube defects, anencephaly, or maternal megaloblastic anemia. Protein intake throughout pregnancy needs to increase to 60 g daily. Calcium intake is especially critical in the third trimester, when fetal bones are mineralized. Prenatal care usually includes vitamin and mineral supplementation to ensure daily intakes; however, pregnant women should not take additional supplements beyond prescribed amounts.

Q: The patient is an 80-year-old male who is visiting the clinic today for his routine physical examination. The patient’s skin turgor is fair, but he has been complaining of fatigue and weakness. The skin is warm and dry, pulse rate is 126 beats per minute, and urinary sodium level is slightly elevated. After assessment, the nurse should recommend that the patient
- Decrease his intake of milk and dairy products to decrease the risk of osteoporosis.
- Drink more grapefruit juice to enhance vitamin C intake and medication absorption.
- Drink more water to prevent further dehydration.
- Eat more meat because meat is the only source of usable protein.
A: Drink more water to prevent further dehydration.
If right: Thirst sensation diminishes, leading to inadequate fluid intake or dehydration. Symptoms of dehydration in older adults include confusion, weakness, hot dry skin, furrowed tongue, and high urinary sodium. Milk continues to be an important food for older woman and men, who need adequate calcium to protect against osteoporosis. After age 70, osteoporosis equally affects men and women. Caution older adults to avoid grapefruit and grapefruit juice because these will decrease absorption of many drugs. Some older adults avoid meats because of cost, or because they are difficult to chew. Cream soups and meat-based vegetable soups are nutrient-dense sources of protein.
If wrong: Thirst sensation diminishes, leading to inadequate fluid intake or dehydration. Symptoms of dehydration in older adults include confusion, weakness, hot dry skin, furrowed tongue, and high urinary sodium. Milk continues to be an important food for older woman and men, who need adequate calcium to protect against osteoporosis. After age 70, osteoporosis equally affects men and women. Caution older adults to avoid grapefruit and grapefruit juice because these will decrease absorption of many drugs. Some older adults avoid meats because of cost, or because they are difficult to chew. Cream soups and meat-based vegetable soups are nutrient-dense sources of protein.

Q: A nurse notifies the provider immediately if a patient with an indwelling catheter
- Complains of discomfort upon insertion of the catheter.
- Places the drainage bag higher than the waist while ambulating.
- Has not collected any urine in the drainage bag for 2 hours.
- Is incontinent of stool and contaminates the external portion of the catheter.
A: Has not collected any urine in the drainage bag for 2 hours.
If right: If the patient has not produced urine in 2 hours, the physician needs to be notified immediately because this could indicate renal failure. Discomfort upon catheter insertion is unpleasant but unavoidable. The nurse is responsible for maintaining the integrity of the catheter by ensuring that the drainage bag is below the patient’s bladder. Stool left on the catheter can cause infection and should be removed as soon as it is noticed. The nurse should ensure that frequent perineal care is being provided.
If wrong: If the patient has not produced urine in 2 hours, the physician needs to be notified immediately because this could indicate renal failure. Discomfort upon catheter insertion is unpleasant but unavoidable. The nurse is responsible for maintaining the integrity of the catheter by ensuring that the drainage bag is below the patient’s bladder. Stool left on the catheter can cause infection and should be removed as soon as it is noticed. The nurse should ensure that frequent perineal care is being provided.

Q: The nurse knows that which indwelling catheter procedure places the patient at greatest risk for acquiring a urinary tract infection?
- Emptying the drainage bag every 8 hours or when half full
- Kinking the catheter tubing to obtain a urine specimen
- Placing the drainage bag on the side rail of the patient’s bed
- Failing to secure the catheter tubing to the patient’s thigh
A: Placing the drainage bag on the side rail of the patient’s bed
If right: Placing the drainage bag on the side rail of the bed could allow the bag to be raised above the level of the bladder and urine to flow back into the bladder. The urine in the drainage bag is a medium for bacteria; allowing it to reenter the bladder can cause infection. The drainage bag should be emptied and output recorded every 8 hours or when needed. Urine specimens are obtained by temporarily kinking the tubing; a prolonged kink could lead to bladder distention. Failure to secure the catheter to the patient’s thigh places the patient at risk for tissue injury from catheter dislodgment.
If wrong: Placing the drainage bag on the side rail of the bed could allow the bag to be raised above the level of the bladder and urine to flow back into the bladder. The urine in the drainage bag is a medium for bacteria; allowing it to reenter the bladder can cause infection. The drainage bag should be emptied and output recorded every 8 hours or when needed. Urine specimens are obtained by temporarily kinking the tubing; a prolonged kink could lead to bladder distention. Failure to secure the catheter to the patient’s thigh places the patient at risk for tissue injury from catheter dislodgment.

Q: The nurse would anticipate inserting a Coudé catheter for which patient?
- An 8-year-old male undergoing anesthesia for a tonsillectomy
- A 24-year-old female who is going into labor
- A 56-year-old male admitted for bladder irrigation
- An 86-year-old female admitted for a urinary tract infection.
A: A 56-year-old male admitted for bladder irrigation
If right: A Coudé catheter has a curved tip that is used for patients with enlarged prostates. This would be indicated for a middle-aged male who needs bladder irrigation. Coudé catheters are not indicated for children or women.
If wrong: A Coudé catheter has a curved tip that is used for patients with enlarged prostates. This would be indicated for a middle-aged male who needs bladder irrigation. Coudé catheters are not indicated for children or women.

Q: Many individuals have difficulty voiding in a bedpan or urinal while lying in bed because they
- Are embarrassed that they will urinate on the bedding.
- Would feel more comfortable assuming a normal voiding position.
- Feel they are losing their independence by asking the nursing staff to help.
- Are worried about acquiring a urinary tract infection.
A: Would feel more comfortable assuming a normal voiding position.
If right: Assuming a normal voiding position helps patients relax and be able to void; lying in bed is not the typical position in which people void. Men usually are most comfortable when standing; women are more comfortable when sitting and squatting. Embarrassment at using the bedpan and worrying about a urinary tract infection are not related to the lying-in-bed position. Fear of loss of independence is not related to use of the bedpan or urinal.
If wrong: Assuming a normal voiding position helps patients relax and be able to void; lying in bed is not the typical position in which people void. Men usually are most comfortable when standing; women are more comfortable when sitting and squatting. Embarrassment at using the bedpan and worrying about a urinary tract infection are not related to the lying-in-bed position. Fear of loss of independence is not related to use of the bedpan or urinal.

Q: A nurse is providing education to a patient being treated for a urinary tract infection. Which of the following statements by the patient indicates an understanding?
- “Since I’m taking medication, I do not need to worry about proper hygiene.”
- “I should drink 15 to 20 glasses of fluid a day to help flush the bacteria out.”
- “My medication may discolor my urine; this should resolve once the medication is stopped.”
- “I should not have sexual intercourse until the infection has resolved.”
A: “My medication may discolor my urine; this should resolve once the medication is stopped.”
If right: Some anti-infective medications turn urine colors; this is normal and will dissipate as the medication leaves the system. Even if the patient is on medication, hygiene is important to prevent spread or reinfection. Fluid intake should be increased to help flush out bacteria; however, 15 to 20 glasses is too much. Sexual intercourse is allowed with a urinary tract infection, as long as good hygiene and safe practices are used.
If wrong: Some anti-infective medications turn urine colors; this is normal and will dissipate as the medication leaves the system. Even if the patient is on medication, hygiene is important to prevent spread or reinfection. Fluid intake should be increased to help flush out bacteria; however, 15 to 20 glasses is too much. Sexual intercourse is allowed with a urinary tract infection, as long as good hygiene and safe practices are used.

Q: An 86-year-old patient asks the nurse what lifestyle changes will reduce the chance of a urinary tract infection. Which response is accurate?
- Urinary tract infections are unavoidable in the elderly because of a weakened immune system.
- Decreasing fluid intake will decrease the amount of urine with bacteria produced.
- Making sure to cleanse the perineal area from back to front after voiding will reduce the chance of infection.
- Increasing consumption of acidic foods such as cranberry juice will reduce the chance of infection.
A: Increasing consumption of acidic foods such as cranberry juice will reduce the chance of infection.
If right: Cranberry juice and other acidic foods decrease adherence of bacteria to the bladder wall. Urinary tract infections are avoidable in the elderly population with proper knowledge and hygiene. Perineal skin should be cleansed from front to back to avoid spreading fecal matter to the urethra. Increasing fluids will help to flush bacteria, thus preventing them from residing in the bladder for prolonged periods of time.
If wrong: Cranberry juice and other acidic foods decrease adherence of bacteria to the bladder wall. Urinary tract infections are avoidable in the elderly population with proper knowledge and hygiene. Perineal skin should be cleansed from front to back to avoid spreading fecal matter to the urethra. Increasing fluids will help to flush bacteria, thus preventing them from residing in the bladder for prolonged periods of time.

Q: When caring for a hospitalized patient with a urinary catheter, which nursing action best prevents the patient from acquiring an infection?
- Inserting the catheter using strict clean technique
- Performing hand hygiene before and after providing perineal care
- Fully inflating the catheter’s balloon according to the manufacturer’s recommendation
- Disconnecting and replacing the catheter drainage bag once per shift
A: Performing hand hygiene before and after providing perineal care
If right: Hand hygiene helps prevent infection in patients with a urinary catheter. A catheter should be inserted in the hospital setting using sterile technique. Inflating the balloon fully prevents dislodgement and trauma, not infection. Disconnecting the drainage bag from the catheter creates a break in the system and an open portal of entry and increases risk of infection.
If wrong: Hand hygiene helps prevent infection in patients with a urinary catheter. A catheter should be inserted in the hospital setting using sterile technique. Inflating the balloon fully prevents dislodgement and trauma, not infection. Disconnecting the drainage bag from the catheter creates a break in the system and an open portal of entry and increases risk of infection.

Q: The nurse would question an order to insert a urinary catheter on which patient?
- A 26-year-old patient with a recent spinal cord injury at T2
- A 30-year-old patient requiring drug screening for employment
- A 40-year-old patient undergoing bladder repair surgery
- An 86-year-old patient requiring monitoring of urinary output for renal failure
A: A 30-year-old patient requiring drug screening for employment
If right: Urinary catheterization places the patient at increased risk for infection and should be performed only when necessary. Urine can be obtained via clean-catch technique for a drug screening or urinalysis. Spinal cord injury, surgery, and renal failure with critical intake and output monitoring are all appropriate reasons for catheterization.
If wrong: Urinary catheterization places the patient at increased risk for infection and should be performed only when necessary. Urine can be obtained via clean-catch technique for a drug screening or urinalysis. Spinal cord injury, surgery, and renal failure with critical intake and output monitoring are all appropriate reasons for catheterization.

Q: A patient has constipation and hypernatremia. The nurse prepares to administer which type of enema?
- Oil retention
- Carminative
- Saline
- Tap water
A: Tap water
If right: Tap water enema would draw fluid into the system and would help flush out excess sodium. Oil retention would not address sodium problems. Carminative enemas are used to provide relief from distention caused by gas. A saline enema would worsen hypernatremia.
If wrong: Tap water enema would draw fluid into the system and would help flush out excess sodium. Oil retention would not address sodium problems. Carminative enemas are used to provide relief from distention caused by gas. A saline enema would worsen hypernatremia.

Q: A guaiac test has been ordered. The nurse knows that this is a test for
- Bright red blood.
- Dark black blood.
- Blood that contains mucus.
- Blood that cannot be seen.
A: Blood that cannot be seen.
If right: Fecal occult blood tests are used to test for blood that may be present in stool that cannot be seen by the naked eye. This is usually indicative of a GI bleed. All other options are incorrect.
If wrong: Fecal occult blood tests are used to test for blood that may be present in stool that cannot be seen by the naked eye. This is usually indicative of a GI bleed. All other options are incorrect.

Q: A nurse is caring for a patient who has had diarrhea for the past week. Which additional assessment finding would the nurse expect?
- Increased energy levels
- Distended abdomen
- Decreased serum bicarbonate
- Increased blood pressure
A: Decreased serum bicarbonate
If right: Chronic diarrhea can result in metabolic acidosis, which is diagnostic of low serum bicarbonate. Patients with chronic diarrhea are dehydrated with decreased blood pressure. Diarrhea also causes loss of electrolytes, nutrients, and fluid, which decreases energy levels. A distended abdomen would indicate constipation.
If wrong: Chronic diarrhea can result in metabolic acidosis, which is diagnostic of low serum bicarbonate. Patients with chronic diarrhea are dehydrated with decreased blood pressure. Diarrhea also causes loss of electrolytes, nutrients, and fluid, which decreases energy levels. A distended abdomen would indicate constipation.

Q: The nurse is caring for a patient who had a colostomy placed yesterday. The nurse should report which assessment finding immediately?
- Stoma is protruding from the abdomen.
- Stoma is moist.
- Stool is discharging from the stoma.
- Stoma is purple.
A: Stoma is purple.
If right: A purple stoma may indicate strangulation or poor circulation to the stoma and may require surgical intervention. A stoma should be reddish-pink and moist in appearance. It can be flush with the skin, or it can protrude. Stool is an expected outcome of stoma placement.
If wrong: A purple stoma may indicate strangulation or poor circulation to the stoma and may require surgical intervention. A stoma should be reddish-pink and moist in appearance. It can be flush with the skin, or it can protrude. Stool is an expected outcome of stoma placement.

Q: The nurse is caring for a patient with Clostridium difficile. Which of the following nursing actions will have the greatest impact in preventing the spread of bacteria?
- Monthly in-services about contact precautions
- Placing all contaminated items in biohazard bags
- Mandatory cultures on all patients
- Proper hand hygiene techniques
A: Proper hand hygiene techniques
If right: Proper hand hygiene is the best way to prevent the spread of bacteria. Monthly in-services place emphasis on education, not on action. Biohazard bags are appropriate but cannot be used on every item that C. difficile comes in contact with, such as a human. Mandatory cultures are expensive and unnecessary and would not prevent the spread of bacteria.
If wrong: Proper hand hygiene is the best way to prevent the spread of bacteria. Monthly in-services place emphasis on education, not on action. Biohazard bags are appropriate but cannot be used on every item that C. difficile comes in contact with, such as a human. Mandatory cultures are expensive and unnecessary and would not prevent the spread of bacteria.

Q: A nurse is performing an assessment on a patient who has not had a bowel movement in 3 days. The nurse would expect which other assessment finding?
- Hypoactive bowel sounds
- Jaundice in sclera
- Decreased skin turgor
- Soft tender abdomen
A: Hypoactive bowel sounds
If right: Three or more days with no bowel movement indicates hypomotility of the GI tract. Assessment findings would include hypoactive bowel sounds, a firm distended abdomen, and pain or discomfort upon palpation.
If wrong: Three or more days with no bowel movement indicates hypomotility of the GI tract. Assessment findings would include hypoactive bowel sounds, a firm distended abdomen, and pain or discomfort upon palpation.

Q: A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a patient who is going home with a guaiac test. Which statement by the patient indicates the need for further education?
- “If I get a positive result, I have gastrointestinal bleeding.”
- “I should not eat red meat before my examination.”
- “I should schedule to perform the examination when I am not menstruating.”
- “I will need to perform this test three times if I have a positive result.”
A: “If I get a positive result, I have gastrointestinal bleeding.”
If right: A positive result does not mean GI bleeding; it could be a false positive from consuming red meat, some raw vegetables, or NSAIDs. Proper patient education is important for viable results. The patient needs to avoid certain foods to rule out a false positive. If the test is positive, the patient will need to repeat the test at least three times. Menses and hemorrhoids can also lead to false positives.
If wrong: A positive result does not mean GI bleeding; it could be a false positive from consuming red meat, some raw vegetables, or NSAIDs. Proper patient education is important for viable results. The patient needs to avoid certain foods to rule out a false positive. If the test is positive, the patient will need to repeat the test at least three times. Menses and hemorrhoids can also lead to false positives.

Q: A nurse is caring for an older adult patient with fecal incontinence due to cathartic use. The nurse is most concerned about which complication that has the greatest risk for severe injury?
- Rectal skin breakdown
- Contamination of existing wounds
- Falls from attempts to reach the bathroom
- Cross-contamination into the upper GI tract
A: Falls from attempts to reach the bathroom
If right: The nurse is most concerned about the worst injury the patient could receive, which involves falling while attempting to get to the bathroom. To reduce injury, the nurse should clear the path and reinforce use of the call light. The question is asking for the greatest risk of injury, not the most frequent occurrence or the event most likely to occur.
If wrong: The nurse is most concerned about the worst injury the patient could receive, which involves falling while attempting to get to the bathroom. To reduce injury, the nurse should clear the path and reinforce use of the call light. The question is asking for the greatest risk of injury, not the most frequent occurrence or the event most likely to occur.

Q: The nurse should place the patient in which position when preparing to administer an enema?
- Left Sims’ position
- Fowler’s
- Supine
- Semi-Fowler’s
A: Left Sims’ position
If right: Side-lying Sims’ position allows the enema solution to flow downward by gravity along the natural curve of the sigmoid colon. This helps to improve retention of the enema. Administering an enema in a sitting position may allow the curved rectal tube to scrape the rectal wall.
If wrong: Side-lying Sims’ position allows the enema solution to flow downward by gravity along the natural curve of the sigmoid colon. This helps to improve retention of the enema. Administering an enema in a sitting position may allow the curved rectal tube to scrape the rectal wall.