Title: Quiz 3
Course: CTS 2346 Windows Server 2012 > Section: Module 3

Q: Authentication is used for what purpose?
- to grant access to a user
- to verify a user’s identity
- to determine security restrictions
- to calculate effective permissions
A: to verify a user’s identity
If right: Authentication is used to prove the identity of a user.
If wrong: Authentication is used to prove the identity of a user.

Q: Authorization is used for what purpose?
- to grant access to a user
- to verify a user’s identity
- to determine security restrictions
- to calculate effective permissions
A: to grant access to a user
If right: Authorization gives access to an authenticated user.
If wrong: Authorization gives access to an authenticated user.

Q: Auditing is used for what purpose?
- authenticating users
- authorizing users
- recording user’s actions
- assessing a user’s permissions
A: recording user’s actions
If right: Auditing keeps a record of users who have logged on, what they accessed or tried to access, and what actions they performed such as rebooting, shutting down a computer, or accessing a file.
If wrong: Auditing keeps a record of users who have logged on, what they accessed or tried to access, and what actions they performed such as rebooting, shutting down a computer, or accessing a file.

Q: Why is choosing what to audit, instead of auditing everything that a user does, a good idea?
- High levels of auditing can affect system performance.
- Auditing sets up an air of suspicion for users.
- Extensive audit trails often lead to too much troubleshooting.
- Auditing requires a high level of expertise to set up and maintain.
A: High levels of auditing can affect system performance.
If right: High levels of auditing can affect the performance of the computer you audit.
If wrong: High levels of auditing can affect the performance of the computer you audit.

Q: Before Windows 2008 R2, only nine basic audit settings existed. Windows Server 2012 introduces a total of how many audit subsettings?
- 23
- 53
- 56
- 64
A: 56
If right: Starting with Windows Server 2008 R2, Windows introduced advanced audit policy settings, which enable you to have more control over what events get recorded by using multiple subsettings instead of the traditional nine basic audit settings. Windows Server 2008 R2 introduced 53 subsettings; Windows Server 2012 has 56 subsettings.
If wrong: Starting with Windows Server 2008 R2, Windows introduced advanced audit policy settings, which enable you to have more control over what events get recorded by using multiple subsettings instead of the traditional nine basic audit settings. Windows Server 2008 R2 introduced 53 subsettings; Windows Server 2012 has 56 subsettings.

Q: What is the purpose of implementing new audit subsettings?
- so that you can fill up Event Logs even faster than before
- so that you can build intricate audit trails for regulatory compliance
- so that you can audit every possible user process
- so that you can focus on important audit items
A: so that you can focus on important audit items
If right: By using advanced audit policy settings, you cut down the number of log entries and can focus on what is important to you.
If wrong: By using advanced audit policy settings, you cut down the number of log entries and can focus on what is important to you.

Q: Why should you avoid using basic audit policy settings and advanced audit policy settings together?
- That amount of auditing will fill up Event Logs too quickly.
- The two audit setting ranges have too much redundancy or overlap between them.
- Setting too many policies can put your system in an “out of compliance” state.
- Audit policies might cause conflicts or erratic behavior.
A: Audit policies might cause conflicts or erratic behavior.
If right: It is not recommended that you use basic audit policy settings with advanced audit policy settings because they can cause conflicts or erratic behavior.
If wrong: It is not recommended that you use basic audit policy settings with advanced audit policy settings because they can cause conflicts or erratic behavior.

Q: Which command do you use to manage auditing at the command prompt?
- Audit.exe
- AdPolicy.exe
- AuditPol.exe
- Policy.exe
A: AuditPol.exe
If right: To manage auditing at the command prompt or by creating scripts, you use the AuditPol.exe command, which displays information about and performs functions to manipulate audit policies.
If wrong: To manage auditing at the command prompt or by creating scripts, you use the AuditPol.exe command, which displays information about and performs functions to manipulate audit policies.

Q: Which one of the following is an example of an FQDN?
- SERVER1
- 192.168.1.50
- sales.microsoft.com
- C:\WINDOWS\SYSTEM32\DRIVERS\ETC\HOSTS
A: sales.microsoft.com
If right: The URL computer1.sales.microsoft.com represents an FQDN: the computer1 host is located in the sales domain, which is located in the Microsoft second-level domain, which is located in the .com top-level domain. Both sales.microsoft.com and computer1.sales.microsoft.com are examples of FQDNs.
If wrong: The URL computer1.sales.microsoft.com represents an FQDN: the computer1 host is located in the sales domain, which is located in the Microsoft second-level domain, which is located in the .com top-level domain. Both sales.microsoft.com and computer1.sales.microsoft.com are examples of FQDNs.

Q: What type of structure does DNS have?
- hierarchical distributed
- flat distributed
- top-down distributed
- wheel-spoke distributed
A: hierarchical distributed
If right: DNS is a hierarchical distributed naming system used to locate computers and services on a TCP/IP network.
If wrong: DNS is a hierarchical distributed naming system used to locate computers and services on a TCP/IP network.

Q: Which TCP/UDP port does the DNS service use to communicate?
- 25
- 53
- 80
- 443
A: 53
If right: A DNS resolver is a service that uses the DNS protocol to query for information about DNS servers using UDP and TCP port 53.
If wrong: A DNS resolver is a service that uses the DNS protocol to query for information about DNS servers using UDP and TCP port 53.

Q: What does the acronym FQDN stand for?
- File Quota Domain Number
- Fully Qualified Domain Number
- Fully Qualified Domain Name
- Full Query Domain Name
A: Fully Qualified Domain Name
If right: DNS uses fully qualified domain names (FQDNs) to map a host name to an IP address.
If wrong: DNS uses fully qualified domain names (FQDNs) to map a host name to an IP address.

Q: The Domain Name System (DNS) works much like a phone book to associate URLs (names) with what kinds of numbers?
- ID numbers
- World Wide Web numbers
- domain addresses
- IP addresses
A: IP addresses
If right: The Domain Name System (DNS) is a naming service used by TCP/IP networks and the Internet. Every time a user accesses a web page, that user must type a URL. Before the client communicates with the web server, the client computer needs to use DNS to retrieve the IP address of the web server, similarly to someone using a phone book to find a phone number.
If wrong: The Domain Name System (DNS) is a naming service used by TCP/IP networks and the Internet. Every time a user accesses a web page, that user must type a URL. Before the client communicates with the web server, the client computer needs to use DNS to retrieve the IP address of the web server, similarly to someone using a phone book to find a phone number.

Q: What is one of the primary advantages to using Active Directory to store DNS information?
- fault tolerance
- zero configuration
- low maintenance
- reverse zone lookups
A: fault tolerance
If right: Microsoft recommends using Active Directory to store DNS and for good reason. One benefit is fault tolerance: Because each server is an authoritative read-write copy of DNS, you have the DNS information stored on multiple servers. You also can update the DNS records from any DNS server.
If wrong: Microsoft recommends using Active Directory to store DNS and for good reason. One benefit is fault tolerance: Because each server is an authoritative read-write copy of DNS, you have the DNS information stored on multiple servers. You also can update the DNS records from any DNS server.

Q: What is one advantage of subdomains?
- They allow you to use fewer IP addresses per domain.
- They offer more efficient network segmentation with inherent VLAN capability.
- They provide better overall network performance for large networks.
- They allow you to break up larger domains into smaller, more manageable ones.
A: They allow you to break up larger domains into smaller, more manageable ones.
If right: Subdomains allow you to break up larger domains into smaller, more manageable domains. For example, on contoso.com, you can create a sales subdomain and a support subdomain. When done, you will have the parent domain contoso.com and two subdomains: sales.contoso.com and support.contoso.com.
If wrong: Subdomains allow you to break up larger domains into smaller, more manageable domains. For example, on contoso.com, you can create a sales subdomain and a support subdomain. When done, you will have the parent domain contoso.com and two subdomains: sales.contoso.com and support.contoso.com.

Q: Which type of DNS zone resolves host names to IP addresses?
- forward lookup zone
- reverse lookup zone
- backward lookup zone
- null lookup zone
A: forward lookup zone
If right: A forward lookup zone contains most of the resource records for a domain. Of course, as the name indicates, a forward lookup zone is used primarily to resolve host names to IP addresses.
If wrong: A forward lookup zone contains most of the resource records for a domain. Of course, as the name indicates, a forward lookup zone is used primarily to resolve host names to IP addresses.

Q: What does Time to Live (TTL) mean in DNS parlance?
- the length of time it takes a DNS query to process
- the length of time required to process an iterative query
- the length of time between zone updates
- the length of time a record remains in DNS cache
A: the length of time a record remains in DNS cache
If right: The Time to Live (TTL) value defines the default time a resource record remains in a DNS cache after a DNS query has retrieved a record. If a resource record has its own TTL value, that value is used instead of the TTL defined in the SOA record.
If wrong: The Time to Live (TTL) value defines the default time a resource record remains in a DNS cache after a DNS query has retrieved a record. If a resource record has its own TTL value, that value is used instead of the TTL defined in the SOA record.

Q: Round-robin DNS is a term that refers to what kind of distribution mechanism for DNS responses to queries?
- limited time to live
- balanced
- cached
- priority weighted
A: balanced
If right: Round robin is a DNS balancing mechanism that distributes network load among multiple servers by rotating resource records retrieved from a DNS server.
If wrong: Round robin is a DNS balancing mechanism that distributes network load among multiple servers by rotating resource records retrieved from a DNS server.

Q: If you have a server named server1.blah.com, want to use it as your web server, and have requests point to www.blah.com, what kind of DNS record would you create?
- an A record
- a CNAME record
- a PTR record
- an NS record
A: a CNAME record
If right: The Canonical Name (CNAME) resource record is an alias for a host name. It’s used to hide the implementation details of your network from the clients that connect to it, particularly if you need to make changes in the future. For example, rather than create a Host record for www.blah.com, you can create a CNAME that specifies the web server that hosts the websites for the domain.
If wrong: The Canonical Name (CNAME) resource record is an alias for a host name. It’s used to hide the implementation details of your network from the clients that connect to it, particularly if you need to make changes in the future. For example, rather than create a Host record for www.blah.com, you can create a CNAME that specifies the web server that hosts the websites for the domain.

Q: Before creating PTR records, what DNS objects must you create?
- reverse lookup zones
- CNAME records
- SOA records
- NS records
A: reverse lookup zones
If right: If the reverse lookup zone does not exist to store the PTR record, a warning is issued that the associated pointer (PTR) record cannot be created.
If wrong: If the reverse lookup zone does not exist to store the PTR record, a warning is issued that the associated pointer (PTR) record cannot be created.

Q: Which DNS record contains the serial number for the zone?
- NS record
- A record
- PTR record
- SOA record
A: SOA record
If right: A Start of Authority (SOA) record specifies authoritative information about a DNS zone, including the primary name server, the e-mail of the domain administrator, the domain serial number, and the expiration and reload timers of the zone.
If wrong: A Start of Authority (SOA) record specifies authoritative information about a DNS zone, including the primary name server, the e-mail of the domain administrator, the domain serial number, and the expiration and reload timers of the zone.

Q: Which of the following is an example of an SRV record?
- DNS server
- AD server
- mail server
- web server
A: AD server
If right: A Service Location (SRV) record maps a DNS domain name to a specified list of host computers that offer a specific type of service, such as Active Directory domain controllers.
If wrong: A Service Location (SRV) record maps a DNS domain name to a specified list of host computers that offer a specific type of service, such as Active Directory domain controllers.

Q: Which command do you use to verify local DNS settings?
- nslookup <dns_servername>
- ipconfig /all
- ping localhost
- tracert <dns_servername>
A: ipconfig /all
If right: Used without parameters, ipconfig displays the IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway for all adapters. Executing ipconfig /all displays the full TCP/IP configuration for all adapters including host name, DNS servers, and physical address (or MAC address).
If wrong: Used without parameters, ipconfig displays the IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway for all adapters. Executing ipconfig /all displays the full TCP/IP configuration for all adapters including host name, DNS servers, and physical address (or MAC address).

Q: What does issuing the nslookup command with no parameters do on your system?
- It returns an error: Missing parameter.
- It places you into nslookup’s interactive mode.
- It returns you to a prompt with no result.
- It displays your DNS query cache.
A: It places you into nslookup’s interactive mode.
If right: If you type nslookup without any parameters, you start nslookup.exe in interactive mode. For a list of available commands, use the help or ?. To exit nslookup interactive mode, use the quit command.
If wrong: If you type nslookup without any parameters, you start nslookup.exe in interactive mode. For a list of available commands, use the help or ?. To exit nslookup interactive mode, use the quit command.

Q: Which one of the following is correct for querying a PTR record?
- nslookup Microsoft.com
- nslookup www.technet.com
- nslookup server1
- nslookup 192.168.1.50
A: nslookup 192.168.1.50
If right: The Pointer (PTR) records are used for the opposite reason of the Host records. They resolve host names from an IP address. Different from the Host record, the IP address is written in reverse.
If wrong: The Pointer (PTR) records are used for the opposite reason of the Host records. They resolve host names from an IP address. Different from the Host record, the IP address is written in reverse.