Title: Final Exam
Course: CTS 2307 Windows Management > Section: Module 8

Q: Which of the following is not a solution provided by User State Virtualization?
- Offline files
- Bitlocker To Go
- Folder redirection
- Roaming user profiles
A: Bitlocker To Go

Q: What feature provides a similar approach to roaming profiles but maintains the experience across multiple devices?
- User State Virtualization
- Application Virtualization
- Virtual Desktop Infrastructure
- User Experience Virtualization
A: User Experience Virtualization

Q: Which RD server role is used to distribute the load across multiple RD Session Host servers?
- RD Licensing servers
- RD Gateway servers
- RD Connection Broker servers
- RD Web Access servers
A: RD Connection Broker servers

Q: On which of the following versions of Windows is the Client Hyper-V feature available? (Choose all that apply.)
- Windows 8 Professional 32-bit
- Windows 8 Enterprise 32-bit
- Windows 8 Professional 64-bit
- Windows 8 Enterprise 64-bit
A: Windows 8 Professional 64-bit; Windows 8 Enterprise 64-bit
If wrong: Client Hyper-V is available in Windows 8 Professional/Enterprise (64-bit version only) and provides the same virtualization capabilities found in Windows Server 2012.

Q: After you have successfully logged into a Windows To Go workspace, which of the following conditions should you expect to encounter? (Choose all that apply.)
- Printers on the host computer are not available
- Internal disks on the host computer are not available
- The Windows Store is not available
- The Hibernate feature is not available
A: Internal disks on the host computer are not available; The Windows Store is not available; The Hibernate feature is not available
If wrong: Once you log in, you will notice the internal disks on the host system are offline to protect against accidental exposure of data. If you insert the USB drive into a system that is already running, you will also notice that it will not be listed in File Explorer. The Hibernate feature is disabled to prevent data corruption during roaming and the Windows Store is disabled by default. The Windows Store application is disabled because applications licensed through the store are linked to your hardware.

Q: What additional tool has Microsoft made available that provides a suite of monitoring, emergency recovery, application, and desktop virtualization tools?
- Virtual Desktop Solution Accelerator
- User State Virtualization Solution Pack
- VDI Management Pack
- Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack
A: Microsoft Desktop Optimization Pack

Q: Which of the following installation sources are acceptable for the creation of a Windows To Go workspace? (Choose all that apply.)
- A Windows 8 Enterprise ISO file
- A Windows 8 installation disc on optical media
- A Windows 8 .wim file
- A Windows 8 answer file
A: A Windows 8 Enterprise ISO file; A Windows 8 installation disc on optical media; A Windows 8 .wim file
If wrong: To create a Windows To Go workspace, you will need a Windows 8 Enterprise ISO, Windows 8 Enterprise installation media, or a corporate Windows image (.wim) created from Windows 8 Enterprise media.

Q: Which of the following hardware items is not compatible with Windows To Go workspaces?
- A USB hub
- USB 2.0 ports
- USB 3.0 ports
- 32-bit legacy BIOS (non-UEFI)
A: A USB hub

Q: To create a Windows To Go workspace on a USB drive, what minimum size USB drive will you require?
- 16 GB
- 32 GB
- 64 GB
- 128 GB
A: 32 GB

Q: What virtualization model is best used when you need to use an application that is not compatible with Windows 8, but your organization has upgraded all desktops to Windows 8 already?
- Virtual Desktop Pool
- Microsoft Enterprise Desktop Virtualization
- Virtual Desktop Infrastructure
- Personal Virtual Desktop
A: Microsoft Enterprise Desktop Virtualization

Q: What methods of data transfer are supposed when using Windows Easy Transfer?

Q: What tool is correctly used to determine whether or not applications, devices, and computers will work with a new operating system?
- Windows Upgrade Advisor
- Application Compatibility Toolkit
- User State Migration Tool
- Windows Easy Transfer
A: Application Compatibility Toolkit

Q: What virtualization model is best used when you want to dynamically assign a virtual machine to a user when they log on?
- Virtual Desktop Pool
- Microsoft Enterprise Desktop Virtualization
- Virtual Desktop Infrastructure
- Personal Virtual Desktop
A: Virtual Desktop Pool

Q: What command-line tool can be used to manage disks, partitions, or volumes?

Q: __________ provides your users with the ability to run applications side-by-side, which would normally cause conflicts, or run multiple versions of the same application on the same computer.

Q: What methods of distribution are available for an Application Compatibility Toolkit collector package?

Q: What command-line tool would you use to boot the computer in a different one-time sequence than the default?

Q: Which Remote Desktop Services role is used for session load balancing?
- RD Connection Broker
- RD Gateway
- RD Session Host
- RD Virtualization Host
A: RD Connection Broker

Q: What is the name of the User State Migration Tool that is used to restore files and settings on the target computer?
- LoadState.exe
- SaveState.exe
- ScanState.ee
- UsmtUtilis.exe
A: LoadState.exe

Q: Which Remote Desktop Services role integrates with Hyper-V to allow RDP connections to Hyper-V VMs?
- RD Connection Broker
- RD Gateway
- RD Session Host
- RD Virtualization Host
A: RD Virtualization Host

Q: On Windows Server 2012, a shared folder and its files are configured to be available for offline use. When users connect, they can determine whether they want to make the resource available offline. What should you configure on a shared folder to protect sensitive contents from being cached offline on client computers?

Q: What type of user account enables you to synchronize your desktop across multiple Windows 8 devices?

Q: How can you create custom UE-V templates to deploy to your computers?

Q: In order to monitor the user profile, what does UE-V require on each computer?

Q: Which of the following listed applications can be monitored by UE-V for seamless roaming profiles between devices? (Choose all that apply.)
- Microsoft Office 2010 applications
- Internet Explorer 8, 9, and 10
- Windows accessories (Notepad, Calculator)
- Microsoft Security Essentials
A: Microsoft Office 2010 applications; Internet Explorer 8, 9, and 10; Windows accessories (Notepad, Calculator)
If wrong: UE-V includes the following application settings templates, which are monitored by the UE-V agent (installed on each computer). They are applied when you start the computer and are saved when you exit: Microsoft Office 2010 applications; Internet Explorer 8, 9, and 10; Windows accessories (Notepad, Calculator)

Q: What operating systems does User Experience Virtualization (UE-V) work with? (Choose all that apply.)
- Windows 7
- Windows 8
- RDP sessions with App-V
- RDP sessions with the RD Session Broker
A: Windows 7; Windows 8; RDP sessions with App-V
If wrong: UE-V works on Windows 7, Windows 8 clients and servers, and Remote Desktop Services with App-V.

Q: In order to authenticate to multiple computers in a workgroup using the same credentials, what must occur?

Q: In an Active Directory domain, where are user accounts stored?
- Locally on each computer in the domain
- Centrally in the Active Directory database
- Locally on a master browser computer in each site
- Centrally on a master browser computer in each subnet
A: Centrally in the Active Directory database

Q: What type of user profile generally results in much faster login times?
- Roaming profiles
- Mandatory profiles
- Local profiles
- Primary profiles
A: Local profiles

Q: What is the net effect of enabling the Optimize for performance option on a shared folder?
- All data within the shared folder will be cached on connecting clients
- Executable files within the shared folder will be run directly on the clients
- Editable files within the shared folder will be edited directly on the clients
- Only editable data within the shared folder will be cached on connecting clients
A: Executable files within the shared folder will be run directly on the clients

Q: What is the net effect of adding a $ to the end of a shared folder's share name?
- It configures the folder to store roaming profiles
- It hides the folder from the browse list
- It configures the folder as an administrative share
- It forces Windows to enforce NTFS and Share permissions configured on the share
A: It hides the folder from the browse list

Q: What feature in Windows 8 forces a user with a roaming profile to instead use a local profile on certain computers?
- Primary computers
- Non-roaming computers
- Local computers
- Sensitive profiles
A: Primary computers

Q: By default, several domain groups have the ability to create and manage user accounts in Active Directory. Which of the listed domain groups does not have this ability by default?
- Domain Admins
- Enterprise Admins
- Server Operators
- Account Operators
A: Server Operators

Q: When creating new local user accounts on a Windows 8 computer, what is the maximum possible length of the password?
- 31 characters
- 63 characters
- 95 characters
- 127 characters
A: 127 characters

Q: What attribute of a user account is assigned only once and is globally unique within an Active Directory forest?
- sAMAccountName
- User Principal Name
- Security Identifier
- UPN suffix
A: Security Identifier

Q: What is the maximum length of the data entered into the User logon name (pre-Windows 2000) attribute when creating a domain user account?
- 16 characters
- 20 characters
- 14 characters
- 24 characters
A: 20 characters

Q: Which of the following statements is true of computers in a workgroup?
- The computers cannot interact with each other, but lack a centralized authority
- The computers can interact with each other, and participate in a centralized authority
- The computers can interact with each other, but lack a centralized authority
- The computers cannot interact with each other, and participate in a centralized authority
A: The computers can interact with each other, but lack a centralized authority

Q: What name is given to an object that is a collection of users, computers, contacts, and other group objects within the Active Directory forest?
- OU
- Domain
- GPO
- Group
A: Group

Q: Which Office 365 feature leverages SharePoint as a document repository and workspace?
- Maintenance
- Hardware
- Collaboration
- Software upgrades
A: Collaboration

Q: Which Office 365 feature reduces administrative overhead?
- Maintenance
- Hardware
- Collaboration
- Software upgrades
A: Maintenance

Q: What is required to be open in the firewall to support NAT64?
- IP protocol 41 inbound and outbound
- TCP port 41 inbound and TCP port 42 outbound
- TCP port 62000 inbound
- TCP port 443 inbound and outbound
A: IP protocol 41 inbound and outbound

Q: What function does the Network Location Server play?
- It is an RAS server that tells the client what policies apply based on the network location of the client
- It is a web server used by the client to determine whether it is on the corporate network
- It is a domain controller used by the client to process location-specific Group Policy
- It is a DNS server that provides location-specific name resolution services to clients
A: It is a web server used by the client to determine whether it is on the corporate network

Q: Which NAP enforcement method relies on the routers and switches that support your underlying network?
- NAP with IPsec enforcement
- NAP with 802.1x enforcement
- NAP with VPN enforcement
- NAP with DHCP enforcement
A: NAP with 802.1x enforcement

Q: Which of the listed operating systems are capable of being NAP clients? (Choose all that apply.)
- Windows XP Professional SP3
- Windows Server 2008
- Windows Server 2003
- Windows 7 Enterprise
A: Windows XP Professional SP3; Windows Server 2008; Windows 7 Enterprise
If wrong: NAP client-capable systems include Windows XP SP3 and later operating systems, as well as Windows Server 2008 and later systems.

Q: When using the Phone Book Administrator (PBA), you can create a phone book file that contains a list of multiple access numbers that can be used to connect to a remote dial-up network. How many unique phone books does PBA allow you create and edit?
- 100
- 1000
- 50
- 500
A: 100

Q: What tool can be used to create and customize network connection profiles for deployment to client computers?
- Connection Manager Toolkit
- Connection Manager Administration Kit
- Connection Administration Kit
- Connection Management Toolkit
A: Connection Manager Administration Kit

Q: When using the CMAK to create a VPN profile, what must you do if you select the Allow the user to choose a VPN server before connecting option?
- A list of VPN servers must be entered into the Wizard
- VPN servers must have DNS host A records created for them which include "vpn" in the name
- You must provide a text listing of VPN servers
- All of the VPN servers must be added to a specific security group
A: You must provide a text listing of VPN servers

Q: In Windows 8, what wizard can you use to make the process of setting up a VPN profile and connecting to a VPN much simpler?
- Get Connected Wizard
- VPN Setup Wizard
- CMAK Configuration Wizard
- Connection Point Wizard
A: Get Connected Wizard

Q: Which VPN tunneling protocol uses IPsec with 3DES for data confidentiality?
- PPTP
- L2TP/IPsec
- SSTP
- IKEv2
A: L2TP/IPsec

Q: Which management solution for your off-network devices allows remote users to connect automatically whenever their clients detect an Internet connection?
- Windows Intune
- Network Access Protection
- Virtual Private Network
- DirectAccess
A: DirectAccess

Q: Which component of SSTP ensures that if there is a break in connectivity, the user can continue without restarting the connection?
- IKEv2
- IPsec
- ESP
- MOBIKE
A: MOBIKE

Q: What form of authentication is used by SSTP?
- Digital certificates
- Pre-shared keys
- Network credentials
- Two-factor
A: Digital certificates

Q: Which of the following is not a feature of DirectAccess in Windows Server 2012?
- NAP compliance
- Force tunneling
- PXE boot
- Using multiple network adapters
A: PXE boot

Q: What major obstacle to deploying DirectAccess in Windows Server 2008 R2 and Windows 7 has been removed in Windows Server 2012?
- The usage of IPSec Denial of Service
- The usage of a PKI
- The usage of IKEv2
- The usage of RRAS
A: The usage of a PKI

Q: You provide part-time IT support for a small insurance agency. The agency has 10 Windows 8 computers. What would be the best method to provide IP addresses to these computers, with the least amount of expense or administrative effort?
- Install a Windows Server 2012 server to provide DHCP and DNS
- Manually assign each computer a static IP address
- Configure DHCP relay on computer to provide DHCP to the rest of the computers
- Allow the computers to use an APIPA address
A: Allow the computers to use an APIPA address

Q: What IEEE standard defines network security such as RADIUS authentication and port-based access controls?
- 802.11i
- 802.11g
- 802.11n
- 802.1x
A: 802.1x

Q: What IEEE standard defines wireless networks that are backwards compatible with 802.11b and provides a maximum bandwidth of 54 Mbps?
- 802.11i
- 802.11g
- 802.11n
- 802.1x
A: 802.11g

Q: What IEEE standard defines improved encryption for wireless networks including AES?
- 802.11i
- 802.11g
- 802.11n
- 802.1x
A: 802.11i

Q: What IEEE standard defines dual-band wireless networks with bandwidth up to 300 Gbps?
- 802.11i
- 802.11g
- 802.11n
- 802.1x
A: 802.11n

Q: __________ was implemented to provide a way to confirm that the server sending the response is who it claims to be.

Q: What storage space resiliency type can be used to protect up to a single drive failure and requires three drives, minimum?
- Parity
- Simple
- Three-way mirror
- Two-way mirror
A: Parity

Q: What storage space resiliency type offers no data protection when a drive fails?
- Parity
- Simple
- Three-way mirror
- Two-way mirror
A: Simple

Q: What storage space resiliency type can be used to protect up to a single drive failure and requires two drives, minimum?
- Parity
- Simple
- Three-way mirror
- Two-way mirror
A: Two-way mirror

Q: When implementing disk quotas there are several requirements that you must meet. Which of the following items is not one of those requirements for implementing disk quotas?
- Users are charged only for the files they own
- Quotas must be enabled separately on each volume and are applied on a per-user basis
- Quotas apply to all users, including administrators
- Quotas can be configured only on NTFS volumes
A: Quotas apply to all users, including administrators

Q: Windows Server 2008 R2/2012 running the File Service server role and the BranchCache for Network Files role service use what network protocol to send content?
- SMB
- DFS
- NFS
- SCSI
A: SMB

Q: Which two PowerShell cmdlets correctly represent the steps required to fully enable BranchCache on a file server?
- Enable-WindowsFeature FS-Data-Deduplication -IncludeManagementTools
- Enable-WindowsFeature FS-BranchCache - IncludeManagementTools
- Install-WindowsFeature FS-BranchCache - IncludeManagementTools
- Install-WindowsFeature FS-Data-Deduplication -IncludeManagementTools
A: Install-WindowsFeature FS-BranchCache - IncludeManagementTools; Install-WindowsFeature FS-Data-Deduplication -IncludeManagementTools
If wrong: You will need to use the Install-WindowsFeature FS-BranchCache -IncludeManagementTools and Install-WindowsFeature FS-Data-Deduplication -IncludeManagementTools cmdlets to enable BranchCache on a file server. After enabling BranchCache, you will need to configure shares to work with it.

Q: Which PowerShell cmdlet correctly represents how to enable BranchCache on a Web server?
- Install-WindowsFeature BranchCache
- Enable-WindowsFeature BranchCache
- Start-WindowsFeature BranchCache
- Provision-WindowsFeature BranchCache
A: Install-WindowsFeature BranchCache

Q: What does thin provisioning of storage pools allow you to do?

Q: When using storage spaces on Windows Server 2012 configured in a failover cluster, what limitation will you face?

Q: What cannot be stored on the drives that are part of a storage space?

Q: What must be done to the last device in a SCSI chain?

Q: You want to enable disk quotas on a volume. Three users in your organization should have quota limits that are double what all other users should have. There are a total of 53 users in your organization. How would you go about implementing this in the most administratively efficient manner?
- Configure default quotas, then configure specific quota entries for all of your users
- Configure default quotas at the elevated size, then configure specific quota entries for the 50 users with smaller quotas
- Configure default quotas at the lower size, then configure specific quota entries for the three users with larger quotas
- Configure default quotas and then disable quotas for the three special users
A: Configure default quotas at the lower size, then configure specific quota entries for the three users with larger quotas

Q: What PowerShell cmdlet is used to enable BranchCache on a Windows 8 computer?

Q: What is generally accepted as the maximum number of computers that works well with distributed-cache mode?

Q: With __________, you deploy a computer running Windows Server 2012 at the branch office.

Q: What storage space resiliency type can be used to protect against two simultaneous drive failures?
- Parity
- Simple
- Three-way mirror
- Two-way mirror
A: Three-way mirror

Q: What disk drive interface type provides data transfer throughput at rates up to 600 Mbps to external devices?
- Small Computer System Interface (SCSI)
- Serial Advanced Technology Attachment (SATA)
- External SATA (eSATA)
- Universal Serial Bus (USB)
A: External SATA (eSATA)

Q: What is the maximum number of USB devices that can be attached to a single USB port?
- 31
- 63
- 95
- 127
A: 127

Q: What Windows feature, first introduced in Windows Server 2000, allows an administrator to control the amount of disk space that is made available to each user?
- Primary partitions
- Disk quotas
- NTFS volumes
- MBR disks
A: Disk quotas

Q: What term refers to preventing people from reading information they are not authorized to read?
- Authorization
- Integrity
- Non-repudiation
- Confidentiality
A: Confidentiality

Q: When using TPM with BitLocker, what mode does not protect the boot environment and requires that the user provide a USB flash drive with the keys before the computer can boot into Windows?
- TPM-SmartCard mode
- TPM-PIN mode
- TPM-Startup Key mode
- No TPM mode
A: No TPM mode

Q: When using TPM with BitLocker, what mode requires that the user present a valid certificate via a secure method before the computer will boot into Windows?
- TPM-SmartCard mode
- TPM-PIN mode
- TPM-Startup Key mode
- No TPM mode
A: TPM-SmartCard mode

Q: When using TPM with BitLocker, what mode requires that the user provide a USB flash drive with the keys before the computer can boot into Windows?
- TPM-SmartCard mode
- TPM-PIN mode
- TPM-Startup Key mode
- No TPM mode
A: TPM-Startup Key mode

Q: When using TPM with BitLocker, what mode can use Group Policy to enforce the usage of a strong password that must be entered before the computer can boot into Windows?
- TPM-SmartCard mode
- TPM-PIN mode
- TPM-Startup Key mode
- No TPM mode
A: TPM-PIN mode

Q: What organization is responsible for the testing and verification of compatibility, reliability, and functionality of drivers for hardware devices?
- Windows Driver Verifier
- Windows Hardware Quality Labs
- Microsoft Hardware Quality Labs
- Microsoft Driver Validator
A: Windows Hardware Quality Labs

Q: Where are the certified drivers that ship with Windows 8 stored?
- %systemroot%\system32\driverstore
- %systemroot%\system\drivers
- %systemroot%\system23\driverstore
- %systemroot%\system\drivercache
A: %systemroot%\system32\driverstore

Q: You can use Group Policy to configure how Windows responds when a user tries to install device drivers that are not digitally signed. Which of the following options are not available for this configuration?
- Ignore
- Warn
- Sign
- Block
A: Sign

Q: When you sign into the Windows 8 computer with your Microsoft User account, the system will automatically sync many settings for you. Which of the following settings will not be synchronized?
- Browser (history, bookmarks, and favorites)
- Desktop personalization
- Documents
- Language preferences
A: Documents

Q: What Windows feature enables you to sync certain mobile devices?
- Mobile Device Sync
- Sync Center
- Device Sync Manager
- Sync Manager
A: Sync Center

Q: When configuring synchronization for offline files to occur when a trigger event happens, you have several options available to choose from. Which of the following is not one of those options?
- Sync when you log on to the computer
- Sync after a specified inactive period
- Sync when you lock Windows
- Sync when you restart Windows
A: Sync when you restart Windows

Q: What happens when an offline file has been changed locally and in the remote location since the last synchronization has occurred?
- The most recently changed version is kept
- You are prompted to choose a way to resolve the conflict
- Synchronization will fail for that file
- Both revisions are kept, and the oldest copy is renamed to include the date and time of the change
A: You are prompted to choose a way to resolve the conflict

Q: The process of caching a print request to hard disk is referred to as what?
- Print queue
- Spooling
- Print serving
- Print caching
A: Spooling

Q: Which of the following benefits and improvements are made available in the v4 print driver model? (Choose all that apply.)
- Separate drivers for client architecture (32/64-bit) are no longer required.
- Drivers are isolated from the print spooler process to eliminate conflicts.
- Print servers are now required to be utilized for all network connected printers, reducing bandwidth.
- Fewer drivers are required due to drivers that support large sets of the same print description language devices.
A: Separate drivers for client architecture (32/64-bit) are no longer required.; Drivers are isolated from the print spooler process to eliminate conflicts.; Fewer drivers are required due to drivers that support large sets of the same print description language devices.
If wrong: The printer driver model v4 provides the following benefits: Separate drivers for client architecture (32/64-bit) are no longer required; Drivers are isolated to eliminate conflicts. These drivers are isolated from the print spooler process and loaded into a shared area with other isolated drivers. This keeps drivers that have a problem from affecting the print spooler process and other printers and drivers that are loaded. An administrator can also configure the drivers to run in a process that is separate from the spooler process and not shared with other printer drivers; Print class drivers that support a wide set of devices that use the same printer description language (PCL, PS, XPS) result in fewer drivers along with smaller drivers' files; The print server no longer serves as a software distribution point. Instead, the printer configuration and its capabilities are sent to the client who uses them without needing a specific printer driver.

Q: What custom filters in the Print Management console are pre-installed for you that make searching for printers easier?
- All Printers, All Drivers, Printers Offline, Printers Online
- Color, Size, Format, Language
- All Printers, All Drivers, Printers Not Ready, Printers with Jobs
- Drivers, Forms, Ports, Printers
A: All Printers, All Drivers, Printers Not Ready, Printers with Jobs

Q: What administrative interface is provided for setting encryption policies, monitoring computers against those policies, and reporting the encryption status across your organization?
- Enterprise Encryption Administration
- BitLocker Enterprise Manager
- BitLocker Manager
- Microsoft BitLocker Administration and Monitoring
A: Microsoft BitLocker Administration and Monitoring

Q: Which versions of the Active Directory schema natively include the attributes required to support storing the BitLocker recovery information in Active Directory? (Choose all that apply.)
- Windows Server 2003 SP1
- Windows Server 2008
- Windows Server 2008 R2
- Windows Server 2012
A: Windows Server 2008; Windows Server 2008 R2; Windows Server 2012
If wrong: In Windows Server 2003 (SP1), the Active Directory schema has to be extended to support storing BitLocker recovery information. In Windows Server 2008, 2008R2, and Windows Server 2012, the schema already contains the attributes required.

Q: In addition to allowing BitLocker to check the validity of the encrypted volume in a computer, what other features does using the TPM chip provide? (Choose all that apply.)
- Ensures that the boot files and boot manager has not been tampered with
- Ensures that the operating systems have not been tampered with
- Ensures that the BIOS has not been tampered with
- Ensures that the device recovery settings have not been tampered with
A: Ensures that the boot files and boot manager has not been tampered with; Ensures that the operating systems have not been tampered with
If wrong: The TPM chip enables BitLocker to enhance security by checking the validity of not only the encrypted volume but also your boot files, boot manager, and operating system files to make sure they have not been tampered with while the operating system was offline.

Q: Which of the following scenarios will cause BitLocker to go into Recovery mode? (Choose all that apply.)
- Changing the boot order to another fixed drive
- Adding or removing external USB devices
- Moving the BitLocker-protected drive to another computer
- Pressing the F8 or F10 key during the boot process
A: Changing the boot order to another fixed drive; Moving the BitLocker-protected drive to another computer; Pressing the F8 or F10 key during the boot process
If wrong: Here are a few scenarios that cause BitLocker to go into Recovery mode. Adding USB external devices or networked printers should not result in BitLocker entering Recovery mode: Changing the boot order to another fixed drive in an attempt to access the lost/stolen hard drive protected by BitLocker; Setting the CD/DVD drive before the hard drive in the boot order and then inserting or removing a CD/DVD; Entering a PIN too many times; Adding or removing hardware (PCMCIA wireless cards, video cards, network cards); Moving the BitLocker-protected drive to another computer; Using a BIOS hot key during the boot process to change the boot order to another drive; Pressing the F8 or F10 key during the boot process.

Q: What happens to EFS encrypted files when they are copied to a FAT32 formatted USB device?

Q: What happens when you attempt to use EFS and have no configured EFS recovery agents?

Q: Which recovery method enables you to keep your personal data, Windows Store apps, and basic settings while resetting Windows back to a good working state?
- Windows 8 File Recovery drive
- File History
- System Restore
- PC Refresh
A: PC Refresh

Q: Which recovery method helps you boot into an environment to get you back into the system so you can begin the troubleshooting process?
- Windows 8 File Recovery drive
- File History
- System Restore
- PC Refresh
A: Windows 8 File Recovery drive

Q: Which recovery option would be your best choice if you needed to recover to a state prior to when a problematic application was installed?
- Windows 8 File Recovery drive
- File History
- System Restore
- PC Refresh
A: System Restore

Q: Which recovery option would be your best choice if you wanted to perform troubleshooting on your computer before attempting a more invasive recovery method?
- Windows 8 File Recovery drive
- File History
- System Restore
- PC Refresh
A: Windows 8 File Recovery drive

Q: By default, how often does File History copy files to the backup location?

Q: __________ are a collection of settings that enable you to customize how you want Windows 8 to look and function.

Q: You want to copy data from a corrupt profile stored on your computer that belongs to another user. What must you do before you can copy data from that profile folder?

Q: Using the ___________ utility, you can use PC Refresh and retain your settings and traditional desktop applications.

Q: After you perform a PC Refresh, what will you need to do to recover the traditional applications you had installed?
- Use System Recovery
- Use AppLocker to recover them
- Use the HTML file on your desktop to acquire them
- Use Windows Backup and Restore
A: Use the HTML file on your desktop to acquire them

Q: If you create a Windows 8 File Recovery drive on a Windows 8 64-bit system, what systems can you use to repair it?

Q: What happens when System Restore has used all of the space allocated to it for restore points?

Q: Is the new File History feature in Windows 8 enabled or disabled by default?

Q: Which recovery method allows users to back up their personal files to an external drive or network share without administrative assistance?
- Windows 8 File Recovery drive
- File History
- System Restore
- PC Refresh
A: File History

Q: Which recovery method can be used to recover settings and registry data, but not personal data?
- Windows 8 File Recovery drive
- File History
- System Restore
- PC Refresh
A: System Restore

Q: When you install the CAS role on Exchange, you automatically install what type of digital certificate?
- A Web server certificate from your internal PKI
- A self-signed certificate
- A default Microsoft issued CAS certificate
- No certificate is installed by default
A: A self-signed certificate

Q: When configuring ActiveSync policies, you have three options available to select from that modify how passwords must be configured on devices after you enable the Require a password option. Which of the following listed items is not one of these options?
- Enforce maximum password age
- Allow simple passwords
- Password must include this many character sets
- Require an alphanumeric password
A: Enforce maximum password age

Q: Which of the following is a requirement to use the in-depth mobile management solution of SCCM 2012 instead of the light management mode?
- Exchange Server 2010 or higher is required
- Exchange ActiveSync is required
- A PKI is required
- Windows Phone 7 or 8 devices are required
A: A PKI is required

Q: When purchasing a certificate from a trusted commercial Certificate Authority, what class of certificate could you use for the CAS server to secure ActiveSync? (Choose all that apply.)
- Class 1
- Class 2
- Class 2c
- Class 3
A: Class 2; Class 3
If wrong: Class 2 and Class 3 digital certificates are intended to identify individuals and devices, and either would be a good choice. Class 1 digital certificates have almost no validation as part of their issuance. There is no Class 2c certificate.

Q: Which mobile device types are supported by the light management mode of ActiveSync and will not require you to use the in-depth mobile management mode of SCCM 2012? (Choose all that apply.)
- Windows Phone 6.5
- Windows Phone 7
- iOS
- Android
A: Windows Phone 7; iOS; Android
If wrong: Light mobile device management provides excellent inventory and reporting capabilities, enables you to define an organization-level ActiveSync policy, supports device wipe, and supports EAS devices including Windows Phone 7/8, iOS, Android, and Palm devices. Windows Phone 6.5x and WinCE management will require using the in-depth mobile management mode of SCCM 2012.

Q: Which of the following benefits is provided by the in-depth mobile management solution of SCCM 2012 that is not present in light management mode?
- Configurable password complexity requirements
- Control over device components such as the camera or Bluetooth
- The ability to use a host Exchange Server environment
- The ability to remove applications
A: The ability to remove applications

Q: In the Windows Defender console, where will you find items that were not allowed to run, but were not removed from the computer?
- Quarantined items
- Frozen items
- Locked items
- Detected items
A: Quarantined items

Q: What does Windows Defender do when you install another antivirus product?
- It will ask you which features of each product you wish to use
- It will disable any of its features that conflict with the newly installed product
- It will completely disable itself
- It will keep running in parallel with the newly installed product until you disable it
A: It will completely disable itself

Q: What does a red X on the Action Center icon indicate?
- A problem exists that you need to address
- A problem exists that you should consider
- An update requires the computer to reboot
- A malware outbreak requires the computer reboot
A: A problem exists that you need to address

Q: What does the System Center Endpoint Protection client leverage to provide a centralized console for management?
- System Center Configuration Manager
- System Center Operations Manager
- System Center Endpoint Protection Manager
- SQL Reporting Services
A: System Center Configuration Manager

Q: You have configured WSUS settings to be applied via a Group Policy Object linked to a specific OU in your organization. You have recently moved a new computer into the OU and want it to show up in the WSUS console immediately. What command can you use to help with this situation?
- gpreload /i
- gppolicy /refresh
- gpresult /r
- gpupdate /force
A: gpupdate /force

Q: What command-line command can be executed to force a computer to contact its configured WSUS server immediately?
- wsus /updatenow
- wuauclt /detectnow
- wsusclt /refresh
- winupd /update
A: wuauclt /detectnow

Q: What is the effect of selecting the "Use the Update Services console" value on the "Enable client-side targeting policy" Group Policy setting?
- Clients will automatically add themselves to a specific computer group
- Clients will all be placed into the Unassigned Computers computer group
- Clients will not appear in the WSUS console
- Clients will create new computer groups in the WSUS console based on their OU location
A: Clients will all be placed into the Unassigned Computers computer group

Q: How can you configure client computers to add themselves automatically to a desired computer group in the WSUS console?
- Use server-side targeting
- Use policy-based rules
- Use client-side targeting
- Use criteria-based rules
A: Use client-side targeting

Q: What HTTP port does WSUS use to communicate with the Microsoft Update servers to obtain updates?
- 80
- 8080
- 8530
- 3389
A: 8530

Q: By default, when will Windows install software updates?
- Daily at 1:00 AM
- Daily at 3:00 AM
- Sundays at 3:00 AM
- Saturdays at 1:00 AM
A: Daily at 3:00 AM

Q: What mode of operation must your downstream WSUS server be in to allow you to configure separate update approval settings while still retrieving updates from the upstream WSUS server?
- Replica
- Extended
- Autonomous
- Managed
A: Autonomous

Q: Where on your organization's downstream WSUS server are the products to download updates for configuration?
- On the domain controller
- On the downstream server in the WSUS console
- On the upstream server in the WsusProducts.xml file
- On the upstream server in the WSUS console
A: On the upstream server in the WSUS console

Q: What type of Windows Defender scan uses signature detection methodology and heuristics to monitor and catch malware behavior?
- Full scan
- Quick scan
- Real-time scan
- Custom scan
A: Real-time scan

Q: What type of Windows Defender scan checks all files on your disks and running programs?
- Full scan
- Quick scan
- Real-time scan
- Custom scan
A: Full scan

Q: Why should you consider allowing your computers running Windows Defender to participate in the Microsoft Active Protection Service?
- To ensure they continue getting definition updates for Windows Defender
- To ensure that all threats in your environment are reported to help prevent the spread of malware
- To ensure that your client computers have the most secure configuration
- To ensure that Windows Defender continues to function correctly
A: To ensure that all threats in your environment are reported to help prevent the spread of malware

Q: What is the purpose of User Account Control?

Q: The process of adding an app or opening a port is called __________.

Q: What happens to new updates downloaded by the WSUS server?

Q: In Windows 8, _________ is designed to provide protection from downloading malware and phishing attacks.

Q: In a normal month, on what day of the month will Microsoft release new security and other patches?

Q: In what scenario is setting up MBAM on a single server recommended?

Q: What does the The DaRT 8.0 Recovery Image tool create?

Q: In which MBAM database is compliance data held?

Q: In which MBAM database is key recovery data held?

Q: How can you prevent updates from occurring to your App-V packages on a client computer?

Q: When running the DaRT Recovery Image tool on a Windows 8 64-bit computer, how much memory is required to be installed?
- 1 GB
- 1.5 GB
- 2 GB
- 2.5 GB
A: 2.5 GB

Q: What should you first install on your Windows 8 computer before installing the Microsoft Diagnostics and Recovery Toolset?

Q: After installing the DaRT kit on your computer, it is recommended to install the Windows 8 debugging tools as well. Why?

Q: Which App-V component provides management and reporting?
- App-V Sequencer
- App-V Client
- App-V Shared Content Store
- App-V Server
A: App-V Server

Q: Which App-V component runs the virtualized application on the computer?
- App-V Sequencer
- App-V Client
- App-V Shared Content Store
- App-V Server
A: App-V Client

Q: Which DaRT tool would be the best option to select to restore a file that was deleted, but was too big to go into the Recycle Bin?
- Computer Management
- File Search
- File Restore
- LockSmith
A: File Restore

Q: Which DaRT tool would be the best option to select for a computer having a hard time booting?
- Disk Wipe
- File Search
- File Restore
- Disk Commander
A: Disk Commander

Q: Which MBAM group would you correctly use to allow designated personnel to manage the TPM and Drive Recovery options on client computers, while ensuring that personnel provide all required information and have no extra permissions granted to them?
- MBAM System Administrators Group
- MBAM Hardware Users Group
- MBAM Helpdesk Users Group
- MBAM Advanced Helpdesk Users Group
A: MBAM Helpdesk Users Group

Q: Which App-V component provides the location from where App-V package contents are optionally streamed?
- App-V Sequencer
- App-V Client
- App-V Shared Content Store
- App-V Server
A: App-V Shared Content Store

Q: Which App-V component converts applications into virtual packages?
- App-V Sequencer
- App-V Client
- App-V Shared Content Store
- App-V Server
A: App-V Sequencer

Q: When using the SkyDrive desktop app, what is the process called when you gain access to any file on your computer remotely?
- Pulling
- Fetching
- Uploading
- Snagging
A: Fetching

Q: When you set up a group in SkyDrive, which of the following actions occur? (Choose all that apply.)
- The group is provided a unique URL
- The group is provided with a new user account
- The group is provided with an email address
- The group is provided a OneNote notebook
A: The group is provided a unique URL; The group is provided with an email address; The group is provided a OneNote notebook
If wrong: When you set up a group in SkyDrive, the group is provided a unique URL and email address. Each group also gets its own OneNote notebook.

Q: When your organization signs up for Office 365, on how many devices can each user use the Office products?
- Three
- Five
- Seven
- Unlimited
A: Five

Q: Which Office 365 deployment model only allows for 32-bit Office 2013 deployments?
- Deploying directly from the Office 365 portal
- Deploying from a network share
- Deploying using Group Policy
- Deploying using Microsoft System Center Configuration Manager
A: Deploying directly from the Office 365 portal

Q: When you add new users to Office 365, they will receive a temporary password. For how long is the temporary password valid?
- 15 days
- 30 days
- 45 days
- 90 days
A: 90 days