Title: Final Exam - must complete
Course: CNT 2001 Computer Networks & Communications > Section: Exams

Q: Which of the following are included in a wireless access point's beacon frame?
- SSID and MAC address
- SSID and IP address
- WEP key and channel
- MAC address and WEP key
A: SSID and MAC address
If wrong: beacon frame provides the "heartbeat" of a wireless LAN, enabling stations to establish and maintain communications. It includes the SSID, MAC address, supported rates, and used parameters.

Q: You need to configure your network to provide visitors access to the Internet but not access to the servers, while employees can access both servers and the Internet. What technology should you use?
- RIP
- VLAN
- port trunking
- ICMP
A: VLAN
If wrong: virtual LANs (VLANs), you define networks within a switch or groups of switches. Similar to physical LANs, VLANs are isolated from each other and can be connected via Layer 3 routing.

Q: How much bandwidth does OC-12 provide?
- 1.544 mbps
- 12 mbps
- 45 mbps
- 622 mbps
A: 622 mbps
If wrong: Carrier transmission rates are a standardized set of specifications of transmission bandwidth for digital signals that can be carried on Synchronous Optical Networking (SONET) fiber-optic networks. OC-12 provides 622.08 mbps bandwidth.

Q: What hacking technique exploits the trusting nature of people to bypass security technology?
- ping of death
- man-in-the-middle attack
- social engineering
- ICMP flooding
A: social engineering
If wrong: engineering is the act of manipulating people into performing actions or divulging confidential information, rather than breaking security technology such as passwords or encryption keys.

Q: You are using the nslookup command to test DNS. Which option shows the mail address of a domain?
- set type=a
- set type=ptr
- set type=cnam
- set type=mx
A: set type=mx
If wrong: eXchanger (MX) defines the mail server for a domain. To display MX records, use set type=mx first.

Q: You are using a network that forms a star-ring topology connected with MAUs. Which access method does this network use?
- CSMA/CA
- CSMA/CD
- CHAP
- token passing
A: token passing
If wrong: Ring uses a star-ring topology. The logical pathway is a ring, but physically it resembles a star. Token Ring uses token passing, in which each computer waits its turn. When a computer gets the token, it can transmit data.

Q: What would you use to break your network into multiple smaller broadcast domains?
- Install more switches.
- Install more hubs.
- Create VLANs.
- Install bridges.
A: Create VLANs.
If wrong: creating VLANs, you are defining multiple virtual LANs. For a VLAN to communicate with other VLANs, you have to use Layer 3 routing. By default, broadcast are not allowed through routers.

Q: You can connect to a server using its IP address but not the host name. What is most likely the problem?
- DNS server
- DHCP server
- domain controllers
- routing
A: DNS server
If wrong: performs name resolution, particularly from host names to IP addresses. Therefore, if you can connect by IP address, the network and DHCP server aren't causing the problem. Instead, the DNS server is not resolving the host name to the correct IP address.

Q: What is used to forward packets from one broadcast domain to another?
- Layer 2 switch
- bridge
- router
- VPN
A: router
If wrong: domains are defined by physical networks or VLANs. To connect VLANs, you must use a router or a Layer 3 switch configured for routing. A router intelligently forwards packets from one network to another network so that the packet gets to its final destination.

Q: At which OSI layer does UDP operate?
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
A: 4
If wrong: Transport layer (Layer 4) provides end-to-end communication services for applications to provide convenient services such as connection-oriented data stream support, reliability, flow control, and multiplexing. The User Datagram Protocol (UDP) is one of the core members of the Internet Protocol Suite, the set of network protocols used for the Internet.

Q: Which switch feature provides fault tolerance while preventing switching loops?
- PoE
- spanning tree
- QoS
- PPP
A: spanning tree
If wrong: Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) ensures a loop-free topology when you use multiple bridges and switches that may contain multiple paths. If a link goes down between switches, STP detects the change and activates passive links to reestablish the connection.

Q: What type of cable releases little or no toxic fumes when burned?
- coaxial
- silver-tipped
- plenum
- fiber-optic
A: plenum
If wrong: cable is laid in the plenum (space used for air circulation) of buildings. To comply with fire code, the type of cable to be placed in the plenum must release little or no toxic fumes when burned.

Q: Which of the following networking protocols gives you secure command-line access to a server?
- TELNET
- SNMP
- SMTP
- SSH
A: SSH
If wrong: Secure Shell (SSH) network protocol allows data to be exchanged by using a secure channel between two networked devices. It is a secure replacement for TELNET.

Q: Which of the following requires routing table entries to be created manually?
- distance vector
- link-state
- static
- dynamic
A: static
If wrong: routing is a data communication concept in which you must configure each path or routing entry manually. The disadvantage for static routing is that for larger networks, you must program each router manually when a change is made to the network.

Q: What happens when you ping a broadcast address of a subnet?
- Only the first computer that receives the ping will respond.
- The broadcast server responds.
- All clients within the subnet respond.
- Only the servers within the subnet respond.
A: All clients within the subnet respond.
If wrong: broadcast typically does not go through routers. Since a subnet is connected with other networks with a router (or a level 3 switch acting as a router), a broadcast will be restricted to the current subnet.

Q: What is the main difference between an IDS and an IPS?
- IPS blocks malicious activity, whereas IDS only alerts you of malicious activity.
- IDS blocks malicious activity, whereas IPS only alerts you of malicious activity.
- IPS blocks viruses, but IDS does not.
- IDS routes traffic when a pipe becomes saturated, whereas IPS does not.
A: IPS blocks malicious activity, whereas IDS only alerts you of malicious activity.
If wrong: IDS and IPS both monitor traffic looking for malicious activity, only IPS actually blocks the malicious traffic that it finds.

Q: What device converts analog to digital signals?
- switch
- modem
- bridge
- router
A: modem
If wrong: modem (short for modulator-demodulator) is a device that modulates an analog carrier signal to encode digital information as well as demodulates a digital signal to an analog signal. With today's technology, modems are considered legacy devices because DSL, cable modems, and wireless technology promise faster bandwidth.

Q: Which of the following Ethernet LAN connection technologies has a full duplex speed of 200 mbps?
- 1000Base-SX
- 100Base-FX
- 1000Base-TX
- 100Base-T
A: 100Base-T
If wrong: operates at 100 mbps. However, with duplex speed, this Ethernet connection can operate at 100 mbps up and 100 mbps down.

Q: Which of the following is used as a loopback address?
- 255.255.255.0
- 172.0.0.1
- 127.0.0.1
- 127.255.255.255
A: 127.0.0.1
If wrong: computer networking, localhost and 127.0.0.1 are used for the IPv4 loopback network interface. Loopback addressing is used to test whether a network interface and protocol stack are up and running.

Q: Which channel should you use when configuring a wireless access point?
- channel 1
- channel 6
- channel 13
- the least-used channel
A: the least-used channel
If wrong: a channel or frequency range is not shared or overlapping with another range, both ranges can be used to carry data without having to worry about interference between a network's different access points. The more access points you have without having to reuse channels means the more flexibility you have to lay out and design your wireless network. Therefore, if you have several wireless networks within the same range, choose the least-used channel.

Q: How many bits comprise an IPv6 address?
- 8
- 48
- 64
- 128
A: 128
If wrong: standard makes use of a 128-bit addressing scheme, which provides more than 79 octillion (79,000,000,000,000,000,000,000,000,000) addresses.

Q: Which of the following protocols is used to trunk traffic from multiple VLANs across the same physical link?
- 802.1x
- 802.11n
- 802.1q
- port mirroring
A: 802.1q
If wrong: is basically VLAN multiplexing, meaning that data from multiple VLANs are carried across a single cable or other network link. To accomplish trunking, special protocols are needed. One such protocol, IEEE 802.1q, works by adding a special tag in the header of an Ethernet frame that identifies the frame as belonging to a particular VLAN.

Q: Users complain that the same static web content they repeatedly access keeps loading and displaying slowly. Which of the following techniques would improve WAN usage?
- caching proxy server
- QoS policy
- load balancer
- application-level firewall
A: caching proxy server
If wrong: caching proxy server caches oft-visited websites so that when the same web page is accessed, it is accessed from the proxy server instead over the Internet, providing faster access.

Q: What port does TELNET use?
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
A: 23
If wrong: TELNET network protocol provides command-line access to a server or device. It uses port 23.

Q: Which of the following capabilities does an active/passive server cluster provide?
- high availability
- load balancing
- QoS
- security scanning
A: high availability
If wrong: availability keeps a system or service running when a component fails. An active/passive cluster requires two duplicate servers. The active node provides the network service, and the passive node is ready to take over if something happens to the active node.

Q: Which of the following is a best practice when implementing a wireless network?
- disabling ESSID broadcast
- enabling WEP
- installing two wireless access points for redundancy
- keeping the wireless access point isolated from the Internet
A: disabling ESSID broadcast
If wrong: ESSID is enabled, any user with a wireless device can easily see that a wireless network is nearby and will know the SSID. Although a hacker can still determine the wireless SSID if ESSI is disabled, the casual user is prevented from seeing the wireless network.

Q: You are connecting two computers using 100Base-TX cabling. If the first computer sends data using pins 1 and 2, which pins would the second computer use to receive a response?
- 1 and 2
- 2 and 3
- 3 and 6
- 5 and 6
A: 3 and 6
If wrong: using a straight-through cable on 100base-TX via a switch or hub, pair 1-2 is the transmitter on the network card, and pair 3-6 is the receiver.

Q: What is the maximum distance for a Category 5 cable that should be used for 100Base-TX?
- 100 feet (30.5meters)
- 207 feet (63.1 meters)
- 328 feet (100 meters)
- 358 feet (109.12meters)
A: 328 feet (100 meters)
If wrong: based on unshielded twisted pair has a maximum length of 100 meters, which is equivalent to 328 feet.

Q: What type of cable is used to connect a computer to a switch?
- straight-through
- roll-over
- crossover
- loopback
A: straight-through
If wrong: connect a host to a switch or hub, you use a straight-through cable.

Q: Which of the following can automatically detect peer-to-peer traffic and reduce the priority of this traffic?
- IDS
- bandwidth shaper
- load balancer
- proxy server
A: bandwidth shaper
If wrong: detect and throttle certain types of traffic, you need to have a bandwidth shaper or device that uses Quality of Server (QoS).

Q: Which of the following includes a media converter?
- hub
- modem
- multiport repeater
- transceiver
A: transceiver
If wrong: types of media converters are also transceivers. A transceiver is used as a media converter when the data coming in on one side of the media converter needs to be retransmitted in a different format before sending it out the other end of the converter because the signals are not completely compatible.

Q: Which command is used to determine the MAC address of the default gateway?
- ipconfig
- ping
- tracert
- arp
A: arp
If wrong: can use the arp command to determine the MAC addresses stored in the system's cache. Within the cache is the IP address of the default gateway and its related MAC address.

Q: You need to troubleshoot a network problem on a network that you are unfamiliar with. What should be your first step?
- Escalate the problem to management.
- Identify symptoms of the problem.
- Use a protocol analyzer to look at the traffic.
- Escalate the problem to the network architect.
A: Identify symptoms of the problem.
If wrong: you can troubleshoot a problem, you need to determine what is affected and what is not affected. Therefore, you need to identify the symptoms of the problem.

Q: What should you do after you add a new cable segment to your network?
- Update your server documentation.
- Update your recovery disaster plans.
- Update the wiring schematic diagrams.
- Update your backup plan.
A: Update the wiring schematic diagrams.
If wrong: wiring schematics diagrams are living diagrams that must be updated as changes are made to the network. When a problem occurs and you need to determine what is connected to what, you must have an up-to-date wiring schematics diagram.

Q: Which protocol should you use to secure the transfer of files from one device to another?
- SNMPv3
- FTP
- SSH
- SFTP
A: SFTP
If wrong: the Protocols listed, only FTP and SFTP are made to transfer files. However, of those two protocols, only SFTP is considered secure because it uses encryption.

Q: What is used to break up a broadcast domain?
- Layer 2 switch
- router
- bridge
- DHCP Relay agent
A: router
If wrong: typically do not go through Layer 3 switches or routers. Therefore, if you want to break up a broadcast domain, you should use Layer 3 switches or routers.

Q: What metric does OSPF use?
- latency
- next hop
- hop count
- bandwidth
A: bandwidth
If wrong: Shortest Path First (OSPF) is link-state routing algorithm protocol that operates within a single autonomous system (AS). Metrics used by OSPF include RTT (Round-Trip Time), which is a measure of the distance to a specific router, network throughput of a link, or a link's reliability and availability.

Q: Which of the following ports does FTP use?
- 20
- 22
- 23
- 25
A: 20
If wrong: uses both ports 20 and 21. Port 21 is the control port, whereas port 20 is the data connection.

Q: What is the biggest disadvantage of using orbital satellite WAN links?
- collisions
- latency
- bandwidth
- maximum distance
A: latency
If wrong: satellites orbit hundreds or thousands of miles above the earth, their signal requires a certain amount of time (known as latency) to travel to the host. This latency can cause a delay when waiting for a voice or video picture.

Q: At what layer of the OSI model do VLANs operate?
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
A: 2
If wrong: LAN (VLAN) is used to isolate networks configured on Layer 2 switches. Therefore, it operates on Layer 2.

Q: Which of the following can be used to automatically configure TFTP server addresses and DNS and WINS search lists?
- smart jack
- DHCP server
- EGP
- SSH
A: DHCP server
If wrong: DHCP server is used to automatically configure IP configuration information, including the default gateway, addresses of DNS and WINS servers, and TFTP server addresses.

Q: Which of the following exchanges information between two autonomous systems?
- EGP
- IGP
- OSPF
- EIGRP
A: EGP
If wrong: Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP) was commonly used for routing on the Internet to exchange information between two autonomous systems. EGP has since been replaced by BGP 4 for Internet routing.

Q: Which protocol is used for VoIP network communications?
- SNMP
- SSH
- RTP
- NTP
A: RTP
If wrong: Real-time Transport Protocol (RTP) is used to deliver audio and video packets, including those used in voice communication and streaming media.

Q: By default, which of the following protocol uses port 143?
- NTP
- SNMP
- SHS
- IMAP4
A: IMAP4
If wrong: Message Access Protocol (IMAP) is one of two commonly used protocols used to retrieve emails. It uses port 143.

Q: Which of the following protocols offers the most secure file transport?
- HTTP
- SNTP
- RCP
- SCP
A: SCP
If wrong: Secure Copy (SCP) network protocol supports file transfers based on the SSH protocol. Like SSH, SCP uses port 22.

Q: Which protocol uses authentication to access a network?
- TKIP
- WPA2
- 802.1x
- SNMP
A: 802.1x
If wrong: 802.1X is an IEEE standard for port-based Network Access Control, which is used to connect to a LAN or wireless network.

Q: Which of the following can you use to locate a cable break?
- multimeter
- CSY/DSU
- protocol analyzer
- TDR
A: TDR
If wrong: time-domain reflectometer (TDR) is an electronic instrument used with copper cables to characterize and locate faults such as opens and shorts.

Q: Which of the following used in wireless networks provides a centralized authentication server?
- Kerberos
- TKIP
- RADIUS
- WEP
A: RADIUS
If wrong: Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS) is a networking protocol that provides centralized Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA) management used in remote access and wireless networks.

Q: Which of the following will occur when you bundle multiple network cables together?
- collisions
- cross talk
- open circuit
- short
A: cross talk
If wrong: talk occurs when a signal transmitted on one wire or channel creates an undesired effect in another wire or channel.

Q: By default, which of the following ports does IPSec use?
- 443
- 500
- 389
- 3389
A: 500
If wrong: Security (IPSec) uses UDP port 500 for ISKMP traffic, port 50 for Encapsulating Security Protocol (ESP), and port 51 for Authentication Header (AH).

Q: What command do you use to determine the route a packet takes?
- nslookup
- route
- traceroute
- ping
A: traceroute
If wrong: traceroute/tracert command shows each hop between the source and destination. Therefore, it shows the path a packet takes.

Q: What type of firewall sees that a packet using port 80 is requesting information, which then allows the reply packet through the firewall?
- stateful inspection
- stateless inspection
- content filtering
- QoS
A: stateful inspection
If wrong: inspection looks at and keeps track of current conversations. When a packet goes out the firewall as part of a conversation, a firewall with stateful inspection will allow the reply packets through the firewall.

Q: Which command should you use to determine whether a network interface is up or down?
- pstn
- ifconfig
- arp
- nbtstat
A: ifconfig
If wrong: (short for interface configuration) is a system administration utility in Unix/Linux operating systems to configure, control, and query TCP/IP network interface parameters from the command prompt. The closest equivalent for ifconfig in Windows is ipconfig.

Q: You have four switches, each one connected directly to the others. Which topology does this represent?
- bus
- ring
- star
- mesh
A: mesh
If wrong: the mesh topology, every device is connected directly to every other device. Although this is the most difficult to set up and requires the most cabling, it also provides the most redundancy.

Q: What type of device allows users to connect to the corporate office over the Internet?
- Layer 2 switch
- VPN concentrator
- Layer 3 switch
- proxy server
A: VPN concentrator
If wrong: VPN concentrator allows users to create a VPN connection over the Internet. With a VPN connection, content is encrypted so that it cannot be read by unauthorized users.

Q: You have multiple hosts on a Layer 2 switch. Which of the following can you use to prevent broadcast from one set of computers to another?
- bridge
- firewall
- trunks
- VLANs
A: VLANs
If wrong: are usually stopped by routers. Therefore, by creating VLANs, you are creating virtual networks. For VLANs to communicate with other VLANs, they need to connect via routers. Therefore, broadcast is isolated to the individual VLANs.

Q: Which of the following uses ACLs?
- IP filtering
- content filtering
- stateful inspection
- PPP
A: IP filtering
If wrong: filtering uses access control lists (ACLs) that determine what hosts, identified by IP address or protocol identified by port number, are allowed or denied passage through a boundary device. They are often used with firewalls, some routers, and some switches.

Q: Which of the following protocols replaces TELNET with a secure connection?
- TFTP
- SSH
- SIP
- RIP
A: SSH
If wrong: Secure Shell (SSH) network protocol works similarly to TELNET but creates a secure encrypted channel between two networked devices.

Q: You discovered that a switch is rebooting several times throughout the day. What should you do next to determine the root cause?
- Swap the switch.
- Look at the switch memory and processor utilization.
- Review the switch's event logs.
- Make sure that all cables are connected properly
A: Review the switch's event logs.
If wrong: you don't know why the switch is rebooting, you should look at the switch's event logs to determine whether any errors would explain why the switch is rebooting.

Q: You are connecting some new network links to your switches. Suddenly, all network applications slow down and network switches are running at 100% capacity. What is most likely the problem?
- You defined a port on the switch to the wrong VLAN.
- You created a switching loop.
- The cable has an opening.
- The cable has a short.
A: You created a switching loop.
If wrong: performance of a network suddenly slows down, the first question you should ask is "Has there been any changes to the network recently?" Since you just connected network links to your switches, this is the first thing you should look at. If you connect cable between switches, you can cause a loop, which means that a packet will go back and forth between two or more switches without ever getting to its final destination. As more and more packets are added to the network, the network performance will significantly decrease.

Q: Which of the following provides predictable network performance?
- QoS
- PoE
- VLAN
- stateful inspection
A: QoS
If wrong: packet-switched telecommunication networks, quality of service (QoS) is a resource of reservation control mechanisms that assign different priority to different applications, users, or data flows, or to guarantee a certain level of performance to a data flow. For example, because video and audio applications suffer from packet loss, video and audio packets can be given a higher priority then standard data packets.

Q: A user lost connection to a shared folder. Which command would you use to determine the root cause of the failure?
- Ping the nearest router.
- Look at the LEDs on the network card.
- Reboot the switch that the host is connected to.
- Run netstat.
A: Run netstat.
If wrong: netstat command-line tool displays network connections, routing tables, and a number of network interface statistics.

Q: What do you use to power VoIP phones?
- VLAN tagging
- PoE
- PPPoE
- spanning tree
A: PoE
If wrong: over Ethernet (PoE) defines a system that safely provides electrical power, along with data, over an Ethernet UTP cable.

Q: To log in to a wireless network using WEP, what you must configure along with the SSID?
- IP address of the wireless access point
- subnet mask of the wireless access point
- shared key of the wireless access point
- addresses of the DNS server
A: shared key of the wireless access point
If wrong: Service Set Identifier (SSID) is the name assigned or identifier assigned to a wireless network. The shared key of the wireless access point would be the password used to access the wireless network. To connect to a wireless network using WEP, you must specify the SSID and the shared key to access the wireless network that is using WEP.

Q: Which of the following allows a user to connect to a corporate network while keeping traffic encrypted between the corporate host and the corporate network using port 443?
- IPSec VPN
- MS-CHAPv2
- SSL VPN
- Remote Desktop
A: SSL VPN
If wrong: you have a network that allows only port 80 and 443, you can configure a VPN client to use SSL VPN. SSL VPN uses the same encryption protocol based on port 443 that HTTPS uses.

Q: What protocol is used to establish multicast group memberships?
- NetBIOS
- IGMP
- RADIUS
- DNS
A: IGMP
If wrong: is a method of sending Internet Protocol (IP) datagrams to multiple hosts using a single transmission. The Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP) is a communications protocol used by hosts and adjacent routers on IP networks to establish multicast group memberships.

Q: Which of the following wireless standards operates at both 2.4 GHz and 5.0 GHz at the same time?
- 802.11a
- 802.11b
- 802.11g
- 802.11n
A: 802.11n
If wrong: 802.11n standard is the fastest wireless technology currently available that uses multiple-input/output antennas and operates on both the 2.4 GHz and 5.0 GHz bands.

Q: To which class does the 183.32.233.32 address belong?
- Class A
- Class B
- Class C
- Class D
A: Class B
If wrong: first octet of a Class B address is from 128 to 191.

Q: Where can you find the A, PTR, and MX resource records?
- DHCP server
- DNS server
- WINS server
- proxy server
A: DNS server
If wrong: store information, DNS uses resource records to store information. The A record is used to translate host names to IP addresses, and PTR records translate IP addresses to host names. An MX record is used to find mail servers.

Q: Which of the following OSI model layers ensure that packets are reliably delivered?
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
A: 4
If wrong: Transport layer (Layer 4) provides end-to-end communication services for applications. It includes providing convenient services such as connection-oriented data stream support, reliability, flow control, and multiplexing.

Q: Which of the following WAN technology provides the fastest connection?
- ADSL
- T-1
- SONET
- DS-1
A: SONET
If wrong: the lowest level, OC-1, SONET runs at 51.8 mbps, which is far faster than the T-1/DS-1 line running at 1.544 mbps. ADSL can go up to 6 mbps.

Q: What is the most effective way to protect against a man-in-the-middle attack?
- authentication
- encryption
- authorization
- auditing
A: authentication
If wrong: man-in-the-middle attack is exactly what its name implies. In such an attack, a person positions him or herself between two other people and eavesdrops on them. To protect against a man-in-the-middle attack, you need a form of endpoint authentication.

Q: In Windows, which of the following tools can be used to display listening sockets and established connections?
- nbtstat
- netstat
- ipconfig
- nslookup
A: netstat
If wrong: netstat command-line tool is used to display information about network connections, routing tables, interface statistics, masquerade connections, and multicast memberships.

Q: For what reason would you use a port scanner?
- to see what cables are active on a switch
- to capture packets on a wire
- to test a firewall configuration to determine which ports are open
- to report the link speed and duplex of a port on a switch
A: to test a firewall configuration to determine which ports are open
If wrong: port scanner tests each port used on a network connection or address so that you can see which ports are open and which ports are blocked.

Q: Which of the following can you use to capture events when a device configured to use SNMP fails?
- SNMP trap
- syslog
- system log
- SNMP agent
A: SNMP trap
If wrong: Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) manages IP network devices including routers, switches, and printers. An SNMP trap allows a device to contact a network management server with information about a significant event, such as network link is down or a printer is out of paper.

Q: Which of following connectors are used for serial connections?
- ST
- RJ-45
- SC
- RS-232
A: RS-232
If wrong: Standard 232 (RS-232) was a cable standard commonly used for serial data signals, including those found on legacy computers.

Q: Which of the following protocols is used for sending emails?
- SMTP
- POP3
- IMAP4
- SSH
A: SMTP
If wrong: Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) allows hosts to send emails and is used to relay email messages. SMTP uses Port 25.

Q: Which of the following is a MAC address?
- 23:72:45:8H:9F:62
- 36-15-4G-31-59-5F
- 11:35:39:34:BC:DA
- 21-29-FF-9T-58-9E
A: 11:35:39:34:BC:DA
If wrong: MAC address represents the hardware address of an interface. It is a 48-bit address expressed in 12 hexadecimal digits. A hexadecimal digit uses the alphanumeric characters 0 through 9, A, B, C, D, E, and F.

Q: Which tool is used to terminate a UTP cable at the patch panel?
- cable crimper
- punch-down tool
- pliers
- toner probe
A: punch-down tool
If wrong: you have cables come into a wiring closet, you need to use a punch-down tool to connect/terminate the cable to a patch panel.

Q: In general, what is the ideal location to place a wireless access point?
- in the center of each room
- near the demarc
- near the wiring closet
- where the fewest electronic devices reside
A: in the center of each room
If wrong: get the best strength as well as the best range for an office, you should locate the wireless access point in the center of the room. Placing a wireless access point in the room's center also reduces signal strength outside the office.

Q: Which of the following protocols uses fiber-optic cabling?
- DLS
- SDH
- ADSL
- PSTN
A: SDH
If wrong: multiplexing protocols known as Synchronous Optical Networking (SONET) and Synchronous Digital Hierarchy (SDH) are used to transfer multiple digital bit streams, also called channels, over fiber-optic cables using either lasers or light-emitting diodes (LED). Both protocols can also be used to send multiple digital bit streams over copper wires at data rates slower than those possible with fiber optic.

Q: At which layer of the OSI model do Internet-working devices operate?
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
A: 3
If wrong: Internet-working devices are concerned with devices routing packets from one point to another, they deal with Layer 3.

Q: You have a small company located in an office building. However, because your company needs to expand, you rent additional office space. Unfortunately, the additional space is 400 feet (122 meters) from your original offices. What is the most cost-effective solution to connect these two offices together?
- Install a new T1 line for the new office space.
- Use a wireless repeater and wireless access point.
- Connect the two offices with fiber-optic cabling.
- Install gigabit switches and connect the two offices with UTP
cabling.
A: Use a wireless repeater and wireless access point.
If wrong: the options listed, a wireless solution does not require running cabling or paying a monthly amount to maintain a connection. Therefore, the wireless option is the least expensive option listed.

Q: You have two core switches that use 10GBaseSR. What type of cabling should you use?
- Category 6 UTP
- RG-58 coaxial cable
- single-mode fiber
- multimode fiber
A: multimode fiber
If wrong: intended for use with multimode fiber, can be used over a cable that is up to 300 meters long. The SR portion of the name stands for Short Range.

Q: Which of the following subnet mask identifies 192.168.14.1 and 192.168.15.1 as being the same subnet?
- 255.255.240.0
- 255.255.255.128
- 255.255.255.0
- 255.255.255.240
A: 255.255.240.0
If wrong: default subnet mask for a class C is 255.255.255.0. Therefore, you need to take bits away from the network address to combine the 192.168.14.1 and 192.168.15.1. Of the possible answers, only 255.255.240.0 takes bits away from the network.

Q: Which of the following is IGP designed for?
- communication between WANs
- single autonomous network
- single non-autonomous network
- Internet connection
A: single autonomous network
If wrong: interior gateway protocol (IGP) is a routing protocol used to exchange routing information within an autonomous system (AS).

Q: Which topology does SONET use?
- point-to-point
- point-to-multipoint
- ring
- bus
A: ring
If wrong: uses self-healing rings that use two or more transmission paths between network nodes. If one line develops a break, the other may still be available, provided that the second is not in close proximity to the first and is undamaged.

Q: Which of the following pairs should be crossed to create a crossover cable?
- 1-2 and 7-8
- 1-2 and 3-6
- 5-6 and 7-9
- 1-3 and 5-7
A: 1-2 and 3-6
If wrong: crossover cable connects two devices of the same type, such as two computers or two hubs. To create a crossover cable, one end follows the T568A standard and the other end follows T568B. In other words, pairs 2 and 3 are swapped for a crossover cable.

Q: You are connecting a new IDS device that is failing to auto-negotiate. Which of the following settings do you not have to configure manually?
- port speed
- VLAN assignment
- port duplex
- flow control
A: VLAN assignment
If wrong: you have to configure network settings manually, you configure port speed, port duplex, and flow control.

Q: What type of network allows a computer to function as both a client and a server?
- peer-to-peer
- domain-centric
- server-centric
- client/server
A: peer-to-peer
If wrong: peer-to-peer network, also known as a workgroup, does not have dedicated servers to provide services and dedicated clients requesting services. As a result, peer-to-peer networks can act as both server and client.

Q: Which of the following is used by an ISP to troubleshoot network issues at a client company?
- demarc
- VLAN switch
- telecom room
- smart jack
A: smart jack
If wrong: smart jack is a type of Network Interface Device (NID) with electrical connection and diagnostics capabilities.

Q: Which of the following cable types requires the pin-outs to be the same on both ends?
- straight-through
- crossover
- rollover
- loopback
A: straight-through
If wrong: a straight-through cable, pins on one end correspond exactly to the corresponding pins on the other end (pin 1 to pin 1, pin 2 to pin 2, and so on).

Q: What would happen if you have the incorrect default gateway configured?
- You cannot communicate with the domain controller.
- You cannot share local files.
- You cannot connect to a remote computer.
- You cannot connect to a local computer.
A: You cannot connect to a remote computer.
If wrong: the default gateway is not configured correctly, you cannot find the nearest router to go through when communicating with any host on a different subnet.

Q: What type of cable would you use to connect a router to your computer so that you can configure that router?
- straight-through cable
- crossover cable
- rollover cable
- pass-through cable
A: rollover cable
If wrong: cable (also known as Cisco console cable) is a type of null-modem cable used most commonly to connect a serial port to a router's console port. This cable is typically flat and light blue in color.

Q: Which of the following connection methods are considered secure?
- TELNET
- SNMP
- HTTPS
- FTP
A: HTTPS
If wrong: is the secure version of HTTP, providing encryption via a digital certificate. HTTPS uses port 443.

Q: You are installing a wireless computer in a construction yard. However, you are having connectivity problems. What is most likely the problem?
- cross talk
- antennae placement
- distance to antennae
- environmental factors
A: environmental factors
If wrong: construction yard might have metal walls or metal equipment that will limit signals. Also, some construction equipment might transmit wireless signals, which could interfere with other wireless signals.

Q: Which of the following is the most secure wireless protocol?
- WEP
- WPA
- WPA2
- WFW
A: WPA2
If wrong: Protected Access (WPA) and Wi-Fi Protected Access II (WPA2) are two security protocols and security certification programs developed by the Wi-Fi Alliance to secure wireless computer networks. WPA was designed as interim solution; WPA2 uses a new AES-based encryption mode with strong security.

Q: Which of the following is primarily based on wireless technology?
- DSL
- T-3
- WiMAX
- SONET
A: WiMAX
If wrong: Interoperability for Microwave Access (WiMAX) is a telecommunications protocol that provides fixed and mobile Internet access using wireless technology. It provides speeds up to up to 40 mbps.

Q: What is a route's destination address called?
- RIP peer
- link state
- next hop
- default gateway
A: next hop
If wrong: a router determines the best route to take, it will determine the next hop. It will then forward the packet to the next hop, where that router will determine the best route to get to its destination.

Q: What is the first step in troubleshooting a network problem?
- Implement and test the solution.
- Create an action plan and solution.
- Identify the affect areas of the network.
- Gather information.
A: Gather information.
If wrong: first step in any troubleshooting process is to gather information about what is not working. This process can involve the original problem report as well as discussions with the user who initially reported the problem.