Title: Final Quiz
Course: DEH 2400 Oral Pathology > Section: Module 10 Temporomandibular Joint Dysfunction

Q: Diagnosis of anemia is best accomplished through:
- laboratory tests.
- evaluation of the color of the gingiva.
- bleeding on probing.
- the patient’s medical history.
A: laboratory tests.

Q: Which papillae are elongated in the condition called black hairy tongue?
- Circumvallate
- Foliate
- Filiform
- Fungiform
A: Filiform

Q: A Stafne bone cyst contains:
- salivary gland tissue.
- an empty void.
- inflammatory cells.
- an epithelium-lined cyst containing serous fluid.
A: salivary gland tissue.

Q: Ectopic geographic tongue can be found:
- on the lateral border of the tongue.
- within bone.
- on mucosal surfaces other than the tongue.
- on the dorsal tongue.
A: on mucosal surfaces other than the tongue.

Q: Which term is used to describe a lesion with borders that are specifically defined and in which one can see the exact margins and extent of the lesion?
- Unilocular
- Well circumscribed
- Diffuse
- Multilocular
A: Well circumscribed

Q: The diagnosis of a traumatic ulcer is usually based on:
- history of the lesion.
- scalpel biopsy.
- therapeutic procedures.
- laboratory tests.
A: history of the lesion.

Q: The major cause of a mucocele is:
- a sialolith.
- salivary duct obstruction.
- trauma to a minor duct.
- allergic reaction.
A: trauma to a minor duct.

Q: Aspirin burn on the oral mucosa:
- is caused by ingestion of too many aspirin tablets.
- is caused by placing the aspirin on the tooth with the toothache, causing the surrounding mucosa to become necrotic.
- is painless.
- requires a biopsy for diagnosis.
A: is caused by placing the aspirin on the tooth with the toothache, causing the surrounding mucosa to become necrotic.

Q: Electric burns in the oral area are usually seen in:
- electricians.
- infants and young children.
- the elderly.
- individuals involved in an electrical fire.
A: infants and young children.

Q: Which one of the following is not a cause of abrasion?
- Pipe placement by pipe smokers
- Playing wind instruments
- Holding needles or pins with the teeth
- Frequent sucking on lemons
A: Frequent sucking on lemons

Q: The eye damage that occurs in Sjögren syndrome is called:
- xerophthalmia.
- keratoconjunctivitis sicca.
- conjunctivitis.
- burning eyes.
A: keratoconjunctivitis sicca.

Q: Diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is made on the basis of:
- skin lesions.
- multiorgan involvement and the presence of anti-nuclear antibodies in the serum.
- arthritis and arthralgia.
- shortness of breath.
A: multiorgan involvement and the presence of anti-nuclear antibodies in the serum.

Q: The most common oral manifestation of Sjögren syndrome is:
- xerostomia.
- xerophthalmia.
- epimyoepithelial islands.
- aphthous ulcers.
A: xerostomia.

Q: Primary Sjögren syndrome occurs when:
- another autoimmune disease accompanies salivary and lacrimal gland involvement.
- there is only salivary and lacrimal gland involvement without the presence of another autoimmune disease.
- rheumatoid arthritis is present.
- Raynaud phenomenon is present.
A: there is only salivary and lacrimal gland involvement without the presence of another autoimmune disease.

Q: Which one of the following is not a characteristic feature of pemphigus vulgaris?
- Epithelial acantholysis
- Bullae
- Tzanck cells
- Occurrence most commonly in females
A: Occurrence most commonly in females

Q: The initial infection and signs and symptoms of deep fungal infections, including histoplasmosis, coccidioidomycosis, and blastomycosis, are usually related to disease in which of the following locations?
- Lung
- Kidney
- Lymph nodes
- Nasal cavity
A: Lung

Q: Another name for verruca vulgaris is:
- condyloma acuminatum.
- common wart.
- Heck disease.
- focal epithelial hyperplasia.
A: common wart.

Q: The image shows an oral condyloma acuminatum presenting in a child.

The presence of condyloma acuminatum in a child suggests:
- hypersensitivity.
- genetic predisposition.
- sexual abuse.
- autoimmune disease.
A: sexual abuse.

Q: The most common form of recurrent herpes simplex infection is called:
- herpes zoster.
- herpetic whitlow.
- herpes labialis.
- type 2 herpes.
A: herpes labialis.

Q: Which of the following conditions does not contribute to the overgrowth of Candida albicans?
- Antibiotic therapy
- Dentures
- Cancer chemotherapy
- Angioedema
A: Angioedema

Q: The developmental anomaly seen in this radiograph is:
- taurodontism.
- mulberry molar.
- supernumerary roots on the mandibular premolars.
- dilaceration.
A: supernumerary roots on the mandibular premolars.

Q: This radiograph clearly shows which developmental anomaly?
- Dens in dente
- Periapical pathology (PAP)
- Caries
- Open contacts
A: Dens in dente

Q: Enamel hypoplasia is the result of a disturbance of or damage to ameloblasts during enamel matrix formation. Which one of the following would not be a factor?
- Genetics
- Ingestion of high concentrations of fluoride during tooth development
- Vitamin deficiency during tooth development
- Shingles
A: Shingles

Q: Pitting is the most common type of enamel hypoplasia seen in patients who have which condition during tooth development?
- Febrile illness
- Drinking water with 2.4 ppm of fluoride during tooth development
- Congenital syphilis
- Herpes simplex
A: Febrile illness

Q: Ingesting water with four times the amount of fluoride causes:
- brown-to-black staining.
- cusp fractures.
- white spots on the middle third of smooth crowns.
- increased dental caries.
A: brown-to-black staining.

Q: Which of the following statements is correct concerning chromosomes?
- They are located in the cytoplasm of the cell.
- Mature germ cells (ova and spermatozoa) contain 46 chromosomes.
- Chromosomes can only be seen clearly under a microscope when the nucleus and cell are dividing.
- Chromosomes contain RNA, which directs the production of amino acids, polypeptides, and proteins by the cell.
A: Chromosomes can only be seen clearly under a microscope when the nucleus and cell are dividing.

Q: Primitive germ cells have _____ chromosomes and are called _____.
- 23; diploid
- 46; haploid
- 23; haploid
- 46; diploid
A: 46; diploid

Q: Points of contact between the chromatid of one chromosome and the chromatid of the other chromosome of a pair, where crossing over and exchange of chromosome segments occur, are called:
- first meiosis.
- second meiosis.
- chiasmata.
- interpolation.
A: chiasmata.

Q: The gap 2 (G_2) phase of mitosis:
- begins when mitotic division ends.
- ends when mitotic division begins.
- precedes the S phase.
- is when replication of DNA takes place.
A: ends when mitotic division begins.

Q: The correct order for the stages of mitosis is:
- prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase.
- prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase.
- prophase, metaphase, telophase, anaphase.
- metaphase, prophase, telophase, anaphase.
A: prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase.

Q: An intraoral mucosal lesion that shows a mixture of red and white areas is generally called:
- erythroplakia.
- speckled erythroplakia.
- speckled leukoplakia.
- leukoplakia.
A: speckled leukoplakia.

Q: Idiopathic leukoplakia:
- is a malignant lesion of the oral mucosa.
- can be rubbed off with gauze squares.
- is caused by direct irritation, as in tobacco pouch keratosis.
- does not have a specific known cause.
A: does not have a specific known cause.

Q: Which of the following statements about epithelial dysplasia is true?
- It is considered a malignant condition.
- Unlike squamous cell carcinoma, cellular changes in epithelial dysplasia may revert to normal if the stimulus, such as tobacco smoking, is removed.
- It presents clinically as an erythematous lesion and not a white lesion (leukoplakia).
- Lesions often arise on the hard and soft palate.
A: Unlike squamous cell carcinoma, cellular changes in epithelial dysplasia may revert to normal if the stimulus, such as tobacco smoking, is removed.

Q: Which of the following statements about erythroplakia is true?
- Most cases of erythroplakia occur on the buccal mucosa and vestibule.
- Erythroplakia is more common than leukoplakia.
- When examined microscopically, 90% of cases of erythroplakia demonstrate epithelial dysplasia or squamous cell carcinoma.
- Erythroplakia is considered a less serious clinical finding than leukoplakia.
A: When examined microscopically, 90% of cases of erythroplakia demonstrate epithelial dysplasia or squamous cell carcinoma.

Q: Squamous cell carcinoma of the oral epithelium usually metastasizes first to the:
- spleen.
- lungs.
- liver.
- lymph nodes.
A: lymph nodes.

Q: Cementoma is a term once used for periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia. Because the disease does not represent a neoplasm, cementoma has been replaced with periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia.
- Both statements are true.
- Both statements are false.
- The first statement is true and the second is false.
- The first statement is false and the second is true.
A: Both statements are true.

Q: For which of the following diseases of bone is surgical recontouring most often recommended as its treatment modality?
- Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia
- Florid cemento-osseous dysplasia
- Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
- Focal cemento-osseous dysplasia
A: Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia

Q: Numerous gritty pieces of soft and hard tissue that contain fibrous connective tissue interspersed with bone trabeculae and cementum-like material is characteristic of which of the following?
- Focal cemento-osseous dysplasia
- Central cementifying fibroma
- Florid cemento-osseous dysplasia
- Ossifying fibroma
A: Focal cemento-osseous dysplasia

Q: The most common type of fibrous dysplasia, characterized by involvement of a single bone, is referred to as:
- Paget disease.
- polyostotic fibrous dysplasia.
- monostotic fibrous dysplasia.
- central giant cell granuloma.
A: monostotic fibrous dysplasia.

Q: Light brown skin macules associated with polyostotic fibrous dysplasia are referred to as:
- Koplik spots.
- café au lait spots.
- brown tumors.
- gritty tissue.
A: café au lait spots.

Q: The most common cause of hyperpituitarism is:
- hepatomegaly.
- hypercalcemia.
- pituitary adenoma.
- hyperglycemia.
A: pituitary adenoma.

Q: Excess production by the anterior pituitary gland is called:
- hyperparathyroidism.
- hyperthyroidism.
- hyperpituitarism.
- hyperglycemia.
A: hyperpituitarism.

Q: The most common cause of hyperthyroidism is:
- hyperplasia of the gland.
- benign and malignant tumors of the gland.
- pituitary gland disease.
- an autoimmune disorder.
A: an autoimmune disorder.

Q: Characteristics of acromegaly include:
- an increase in growth hormone production before the closure of long bones.
- a rapid and dramatic onset.
- thinned lips and microglossia.
- enlargement of the maxilla and mandible, resulting in separation of the teeth and malocclusion.
A: enlargement of the maxilla and mandible, resulting in separation of the teeth and malocclusion.

Q: An enlarged tongue is associated with:
- hyperpituitarism.
- hyperthyroidism.
- hypothyroidism.
- hyperparathyroidism.
A: hypothyroidism.

Q: An open lock that the patient cannot reduce is called:
- subluxation.
- dislocation.
- ankylosis.
- myofascial pain.
A: dislocation.

Q: Which type of dental radiography is best for examining disk position, function, form, and the presence of joint effusions?
- Panoramic imaging
- Transcranial imaging
- Computerized tomography (CT)
- Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
A: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

Q: The purpose of the synovial fluid is to:
- provide nourishment and lubrication.
- divide the space into upper and lower compartments.
- govern mandibular movement.
- separate forces resulting from movement.
A: provide nourishment and lubrication.

Q: Which of the following statements is characteristic of a patient with osteoarthritis?
- It is characterized by pain that is worse in the morning.
- It is characterized by pain that is worse in the evening.
- It is an inflammatory, autoimmune disorder of the joints.
- Approximately 50% to 75% of patients have involvement of the temporomandibular joint during the course of the disease.
A: It is characterized by pain that is worse in the evening.

Q: During opening of the jaw:
- rotational movement precedes translation.
- rotational movement follows translation.
- there is only rotational movement; translation occurs only during closure.
- there is only translational movement; rotation occurs only during closure.
A: rotational movement precedes translation.