Title: Exam 3
Course: PRN 0070 Basic Nutrition > Section: Module 3 Nutritional Care During Illness

Q: What does the term overweight mean?
- 20% above average weight
- 10 to 20% above average weight
- 25 to 30% above average weight
- none of the above
A: 10 to 20% above average weight

Q: What does BMI stand for?
- body measured index
- body muscle index
- body muscle indention
- body mass index
A: body mass index

Q: Visceral fat is fat located in the
- buttocks
- abdominal cavity
- breast
- upper thigh
A: abdominal cavity

Q: The best weight-reduction diet is the
- liquid diet containing 800–1,000 calories
- protein diet with no carbohydrates
- low-fat diet
- balanced diet with controlled calories
A: balanced diet with controlled calories

Q: A gram of fat is equal to how many calories?
- three
- seven
- nine
- four
A: nine

Q: What is the recommended proportion of nutrients in a “healthy diet”?
- 20% protein, 65% carbohydrates, less than 10% fat
- 15–20% protein, 45–55% carbohydrates, 30% or less fat
- 10–15% protein, 55–65% carbohydrates, 20–35% fat
- 45–55% protein, 15–20% carbohydrates, less than 30% fat
A: 15–20% protein, 45–55% carbohydrates, 30% or less fat

Q: Which of the following is a good example of low-calorie substitutes for high-calorie foods?
- fat-free milk for whole milk
- low-fat cookies for regular cookies
- orange juice for soda
- ice cream for whole milk
A: fat-free milk for whole milk

Q: What is the name for a group of serious and chronic disorders affecting the metabolism of carbohydrates?
- Diabetes mellitus
- Hyperglycemia
- Diabetes insipidus
- Ketonuria
A: Diabetes mellitus

Q: What per cent of type 2 diabetes clients are overweight?
- 80%
- 65%
- less than 50%
- 95%
A: 80%

Q: What is the recommended carbohydrate intake for diabetics?
- 40 to 50% of total calories
- no more than 30% calories
- 50 to 60% of total calories
- 15 to 20% of total calories
A: 50 to 60% of total calories

Q: When increasing one’s fiber intake, what does one must also increase?
- fat
- carbohydrate
- water
- protein
A: water

Q: Which condition may result when clients do not eat the prescribed diet, yet still continue to take the prescribed insulin?
- hyperglycemia
- ketosis
- hypoglycemia
- hypertension
A: hypoglycemia

Q: When hyperglycemia occurs in the body, cellular changes result in three classic symptoms. What are they?
- weight loss, fatigue, vomiting
- polydipsia, polyphagia, glucagons production
- nausea, vomiting, diarrhea
- excessive thirst, polyuria, glycosuria
A: excessive thirst, polyuria, glycosuria

Q: What hormone helps release energy by converting glycogen to glucose?
- estrogen
- glucagon
- insulin
- all of the above
A: glucagon

Q: For someone who has diabetes, what percentage of calories should come from complex carbohydrates?
- 50–60%
- 40–50%
- 10–20%
- none of the above
A: 40–50%

Q: What are some modifiable risk factors for atherosclerosis?
- diet and lifestyle
- diabetes mellitus
- heredity
- age
A: diet and lifestyle

Q: What is the desirable blood cholesterol level recommended by the American Heart Association?
- 200 mg/dl
- 200–239 mg/dl
- 240 mg/dl
- 140 mg/dl
A: 200 mg/dl

Q: Which of the following represents a diet low in saturated fat?
- whole milk and oatmeal
- bacon, lettuce, and cheese hamburger
- fish and chips (French fries)
- turkey and tomato sandwich with pretzels
A: turkey and tomato sandwich with pretzels

Q: Which of the following foods contains a high amount of cholesterol?
- egg yolks
- peanuts
- soft margarine
- olive oil
A: egg yolks

Q: How is sodium a predisposing factor in hypertension?
- It causes fluids to move too quickly to the kidneys, which puts extra pressure on the blood vessels.
- It acts as a diuretic and causes a loss of body fluids.
- An increased intake of sodium causes fluid shifts in the body, which puts extra pressure on the blood vessels.
- An increase of sodium dilates blood vessels.
A: An increased intake of sodium causes fluid shifts in the body, which puts extra pressure on the blood vessels.

Q: When a client is diagnosed with hypertension, the dietitian may be asked by the physician to
- provide a calorie-controlled diet for the client
- provide a sodium-restricted diet for the client
- educate and counsel the client regarding their required diet
- all of the above
A: all of the above

Q: Which of the following foods should be limited on a low-cholesterol diet?
- whole milk
- potatoes
- chicken
- enriched bread
A: whole milk

Q: Name two end products of protein metabolism.
- urea and uric acid
- vitamin D and vitamin K
- lecithin and uremia
- creatinine and aldosterone
A: urea and uric acid

Q: Kidneys make the final conversion of what vitamin?
- vitamin D
- vitamin C
- vitamin K
- vitamin E
A: vitamin D

Q: What vitamin supplement should not be given to renal clients because the blood level of this vitamin tends to be elevated in uremia?
- B
- A
- C
- D
A: A

Q: What is/are usually restricted to 3,000 to 4,000 mg a day for dialysis clients.
- Potassium
- Calcium
- Protein
- Fats
A: Potassium

Q: What is helpful in diluting urine for the treatment of renal stones?
- fats
- fluids
- protein
- carbohydrates
A: fluids

Q: What is a condition in which protein wastes that should have been excreted are instead circulating in the blood?
- Acute renal failure
- Oliguria
- Uremia
- Nephritis
A: Uremia

Q: What is the condition when urinary output is less than 500 ml/day?.
- Cystic fibrosis
- Oliguria
- Acute renal failure
- Renal stones
A: Oliguria

Q: Which of the following organs are considered primary organs of the gastrointestinal tract?
- mouth, small intestine, large intestine
- mouth, liver, stomach
- pancreas, gall bladder, kidney
- heart, lungs, stomach
A: mouth, small intestine, large intestine

Q: What condition is caused by the irritating effect of acidic gastric reflux on the mucosa of the esophagus?.
- Esophagitis
- Hiatal hernia
- Dyspepsia
- Peptic ulcer
A: Esophagitis

Q: How can the symptoms of a hiatal hernia be eliminated?
- eating three large meals daily
- eliminating fat in the diet
- eating small, frequent meals
- eliminating vegetables from the diet
A: eating small, frequent meals

Q: How are antibiotics useful in treating peptic ulcers?
- inhibit gastric secretion
- break down the cells that compose the ulcer
- kill the bacteria
- neutralize any excess acid
A: kill the bacteria

Q: What does a diet therapy for clients with diverticulitis begin with?
- low-residue diet
- clear liquid diet
- high-fiber diet
- low-fat diet
A: clear liquid diet

Q: What is a characteristic of a high-fiber diet?
- 20–30 g soluble fiber
- 30 g or more of soluble fiber
- 30 g or more of insoluble fiber
- 30 g or more of dietary fiber
A: 30 g or more of dietary fiber

Q: After the bowel has been allowed to rest and heal and the acute phase of diverticulitis is over, what diet is given?
- low-residue
- high-fiber
- low-fiber
- full liquid
A: high-fiber

Q: People who have celiac disease would eliminate what food from their diet?
- barley
- rice
- corn
- popcorn
A: barley

Q: What is needed for wound healing, tissue building, and blood regeneration?
- vitamin B
- protein
- vitamin D
- carbohydrate
A: protein

Q: Which vitamins, along with zinc, are essential for wound healing in surgery clients?
- B vitamins and E
- vitamin K and folic acid
- vitamin D and thiamine
- vitamins A and C
A: vitamins A and C

Q: What vitamin(s) is (are) needed for the absorption of calcium?
- vitamin B
- vitamin K
- vitamin D
- vitamins A and C
A: vitamin D

Q: What vitamin(s) is (are) essential for proper clotting of the blood in surgery clients?
- vitamin B
- vitamin K
- vitamin D
- vitamins A and C
A: vitamin K

Q: What is the name of the condition that can occur after gastric surgery and is characterized by dizziness, weakness, cramps, vomiting, and diarrhea?
- opportunistic infection
- dumping syndrome
- hyperglycemia
- hypoglycemia
A: dumping syndrome

Q: What is the term for the instrument used to tube feed through the nose and into the stomach?
- nasal tube
- gastric tube
- nasogastric tube
- esophageal tube
A: nasogastric tube

Q: When a client cannot or will not take food by mouth, but their gastrointestinal tract is working, what will they receive?
- tube feeding
- parenteral nutrition
- a stern lecture
- all of the above
A: tube feeding

Q: How soon after surgery will the average client be able to take food?
- 1 day
- 1 to 4 days
- 2 days
- 3–6 days
A: 1 to 4 days